Bible Question (short): We have seen Jesus... |
Question (full): In having read the book umpteen times over the past 1/2 centry, apon my most recient re-reading of it, a thought just came to mind. Keep in mind John 1:1. “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Now consider what Jesus states in John 14:21. "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him." “And will manifest (show) myself to him.” Now... My thought is, "He has manifest Himself to me in His word." I believe, but have yet researched it, that scripture states something to this affect, elsewhere. Many take this passage literally. I firmly believe that, just like the rest of scripture, depending on the specific circumstances, this passage can be taken either way. literally or figuratively. Having no desire to get into a doctrinal discussion on the matter, I would like to ask, what passages you would provide in support, or contrast to this thought? |