Bible Question:
Did God change the orderly way of how tongues is to be spoken? Should 1 Corinthians 14:26-28 be disregarded? It sounds like you are. The reason Paul wrote this section is because there was disorder ... as I see in some churches today. I read the Bible. I do not take anything away, nor add anything (Deu 4:2, 12:32; Pro 30:6; Gal 3:15; Rev 22:18-19). Searcher |
Bible Answer: Those are the verses I was referring to when I said, " I don't think the manafestations are being opperated in order today!' I did NOT remove anything from the word! You have added if you say speaking in tongues is of the Devil or that Satan can do it. It takes the spirit of God to do it, so whatever these satanist are doing it is NOT speaking in tongues! |