Subject: when do I spake in tounges |
Bible Note: Not Paul, but rather Peter, John and/or Philip. 8:14 As I understand you, your point is that there is precedent for the idea that water baptism does not command, direct or trigger the Holy Spirit to enter a believer. I can accept this because I accept that there is nothing we can do to influence God to do anything. Everything He does related to us is grace and mercy. If I may attempt to exposit from this, a possible explanation for why the Holy Spirit did not enter the new believers upon baptism in this case is that He wished to confirm the authority of the Apostles by entering upon the laying on of hands. The point then is the indwelling of the Spirit as an act of grace, with baptism as personal act of faith demonstrating a willingness to receive Him and laying on of hands as an act of intercession on behalf of others and perhaps as a sign for us to be under the authority of church leaders. Regarding Acts 10:43-47, to give evidence that the Holy Spirit had been poured out upon the Gentiles, 10:46 says "For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God..." While it is possible that all were speaking in tongues and all were exalting God, it also can easily mean that SOME were doing each of these things. Hence, it does not follow that this verse implies a necessary cause-effect relationship between the outpouring of the Spirit and the gift of tongues for all. Perhaps this is similar to the situation with baptism and entry by the Holy Spirit, i.e. the Holy Spirit will impart tongues as He sees fit, not as a necessarily consequence of His presence. Parable |