Subject: Man or man? |
Bible Note: Janae I too take the Bible very literally, probably more so than even you. However I also make sure my exegesis of the scripture conforms to the whole of scripture. If there were even a remotest hint that God would have to forsake Jesus I would agree with you. If there was any example of where God deserted anyone one that called upon him no matter their state I would agree with you. If there were any foundation to the belief that God can not look upon sin I would agree with you. If Satan did not have access to accuse the saints, or if Satan did not stand before God and answer God's questions I would agree with you. But to apply this verse in a way that stands contrary to the whole of scripture is a problem for me. When we view a Bible verse we are to take it a face value, as long as that rendering aligns with the rest of scripture. However if face value is contrary to the whole of scripture then we need to investigate deeper. Upon investigation we see no example where God can not look upon sin, that God has to leave the presence of someone in sin or that God deserts us when we are found in sin. If your interpretation of this event is correct then we would have to conclude either the Holy Spirit is not as Holy as God and therefore can stand in the presence of sin or that He has to flee every time we commit a sin. Then the question becomes who convicts a child of God of sin if it is not the Holy Spirit? We would also have to conclude that Jesus was not fully God and fully man but rather was either. Fully God only when He was representing God and fully man only when He was experiencing humanity. Again this contradicts scripture. Your right Jesus was fulfilling prophecy when he quoted Psalm 22 but He did it as God as Man bearing the sins of the world. EdB |