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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What does baptism consist? | 1 John 5:6 | arrow1 | 113604 | ||
answer to tim Eph 1:7, Luke 24:47, Acts 3:19, Romans 6:3-7, Acts 2:38, do not mention faith. By your logic, faith must not be necessary because it is not in those verses. You are not being very consistent. Actually, isn't it interesting, the very first time the gospel is preached(Peter's sermon) faith is "never" mentioned yet 3,000 were added to the church that day. Think about it, if faith alone is so important, how could Peter spend forty days being taught by Jesus about the Kingdom of God, and then at the first sermon he ever gives, he never mentions faith alone. By some of your logic, it would seem faith is not a requirement. Of course I'm being a little silly, faith is required. But it should be clear all of scriture is important. That's why you can't ignore the verses that say baptism saves you, or repentance saves you. Also, the phrase "faith alone" is nowhere to be found in scripture, yet that is your doctrine? |
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2 | What does baptism consist? | 1 John 5:6 | Morant61 | 113676 | ||
Greetings Arrow1! There are many 'synonyms' for 'faith' or 'believe'. One can 'receive', 'accept', 'confess', ect... Thus, in Acts 2:41, it is said that the crowd 'accepted' his message. I would classify this as 'belief' or 'faith'. In fact, Kittel's says the following of this verb in Acts 2:42: "In a related sense the NT speaks about receiving the gospel or the Word of God (Acts 8:14; 11:1; 17:11; cf. Jms. 1:21; 1 Th. 1:6; 2:13). One may also receive its content, i.e., the kingdom of God (Mk. 10:15), the grace of God (2 Cor. 6:1), or love of the truth (2 Th. 2:10). In this sense ý«vúoµŒé is equivalent to faith. It brings out the fact that in relation to God we can only receive. In hearing the gospel, however, we are liberated for it. By the Spirit (1 Cor. 2:14), the understanding is opened and we are set in the freedom of decision in which God’s grace or kingdom may be ours." Faith is not some magic word, it simply refers to believing enough in something to trust it. In this case, it is placing one's trust in the Gospel or God. Obviously, not every verse will mention every detail, but Eph. 2:8-9 is perfectly clear what is 'required' for salvation - and it isn't baptism. Baptism, along with all of the other imperatives of Scripture, is a command which we obey after we have been saved, not a command we obey in order to be saved - otherwise, our salvation would be based upon works, not grace. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | What does baptism consist? | 1 John 5:6 | Rowdy | 113681 | ||
Don't you think this is one reason why the Devil tempted (successfully) King James into having the KJV Bible abused this way. King James didn't want to humble himself and submit to God's plan of salvation. Back in the 16th century, the Greek word, baptizo (sp?) had one single meaning: immersion. King James ordered his Bible scholars to "interpret" the word baptizo into something else and allow him some other way of getting into God's family of good, obedient christians. Either his way or they would lose their heads. This is fairly common knowledge in historical documents. So, their conclusion (solution) was to come up with the Anglicized word "baptize." Why? Indeed, why would so many people from the past, present and future discuss this tremendous controversy so much except at the temptation from the Devil? Do you think maybe, just maybe he thought "If I can't kill God's Son, if I can't kill His church, maybe I can deceive mankind into thinking they can change God's Plan of Salvation. They'll think they're in the family of God, listening to my only slightly perverted version of God's Word, just like I changed things just slightly with one word in the Garden of Eden." You may be thinking I'm placing far too much emphasis on this baptism business and I guess I'd have to agree with you EXCEPT this is what I see from God's Word. He placed tremendous emphasis throughout the OT on blood and set us (mankind) up to understand likewise in this dispensation. I'm not saying that we should rely on baptism as being a item of work on our part. I am saying that God wants us to see this as the point in which we contact His Son's blood in faith. We should see in accordance with Rom 6 that we put away the man of sin with Jesus' burial and rise up as a new creature with our sins forgiven then and afterwards by His Son's blood. You and most all the participants know the scriptures and know the phrase "remission of sins" is always associated with baptism and not with any other step of salvation. Tim, please understand, I'm not saying you are deceiving people or are in a team effort with the Devil. I am saying that Satan is an incredibly good liar and takes deception to an art form in excellence. What do you think? Please respond and God bless you. |
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4 | What does baptism consist? | 1 John 5:6 | Morant61 | 113689 | ||
Greetings Rowdy! I'm not sure where the KJV came into the discussion? :-) As far as the word 'baptizo' is concerned, it definitely can mean more than just 'immerse'. Concerning 'remission of sins', allow me to ask you this my friend. If baptism is necessary for 'remission of sins', then according to Acts 2:38, baptism must also be necessary for reception of the 'gift of the Holy Spirit'. Yet, Acts 10:47 specifically tells us of a group that received 'the gift of the Holy Spirit' before they were baptized. So, how would you explain this? My explanation is simple, 'baptism' has nothing to do with the remission of sins - repentance does. The command 'let each one be baptized' is an appostional statement and is not grammatically connected to the rest of the sentence. This is conclusively shown in Acts 10:47. For a fuller explanation, simply search my posts for Acts 2:38. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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