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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | 10ECPreacher | 36012 | ||
Is God essentially "one" -- or is He essentially "three"? The KJV has: "You believe there is one God..." Apparently, we all agree on this point--at least superficially. But do we agree that "God is ONE"? A literal rendering of Deut. 6:4--"Hear O Israel, The LORD our God, the LORD He is ONE." At the risk of stirring up a veritable hornet's nest, I would like to initiate a reasonable and responsible discussion concerning the nature of Deity. I have read some of the previous threads on this forum where "Oneness" theology was disparaged as heretical. I haven't seen where some of my concerns on this issue have been discussed. I realize that my view on this topic will be in the minority, but I would nonetheless ask for a fair hearing. I am convinced that there are many level-headed, fair-minded, rational thinkers on this forum. I would plead that as long as I am consistent with the teachings and actions of the Apostles in the early church (as recorded in the New Testament) then it is unfair to label my beliefs as heterodoxy. I have personally discussed this topic with many trinitarians over the past 20 or more years, and invariably it seems like the division between us is largely one of semantics. I do not see a Biblical basis for the doctrine of the "trinity" -- one must appeal to historical documents to find the term. I do not see in the Bible a reason to believe there are three persons in the Godhead. Instead, I would use the term "personality" (personna). I have studied this topic for many years, and am familiar with all the strife and debate and acrimony that this kind of discussion can gender. It is my desire to studiously avoid any statements or implications that would cast aspersions on any other member of this forum, regardless of their view in regard to this matter. In my opinion, the only basis for our doctrine is the Bible. All other writings, such as creeds and dogma, are only viable insofar as they accurately reflect Holy Writ. I believe the Bible gives adequate definition of the nature of the Deity. In my humble opinion, much damage has been done to the credibility of trinitarian doctrines because of the efforts of some of the early church "fathers" to restate what was obvious enough to begin with. Let the Bible speak for itself. When adherence to a clearly stated principle in the Bible causes conflict with a dogma or creed written by men, why is the label of heresy given to those who follow the Bible? Is God in essence "ONE"? Or is He in essence "THREE"? What difference does it make to us if we believe one way or the other? (I do not intend for this discussion to become tangled up with a debate concerning the "unitarian" doctrine--or any other teaching that denies the absolute deity of Jesus Christ.) Thank you in advance for your kind and patient consideration of this topic. Kind regards, Tim D. Cormier Tennessee Preacher |
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2 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Morant61 | 37481 | ||
Greetings Tim! I appreciate your tone in this debate! We all should be loving and Christlike in our conversations with one another. If I may, I would like to address the question you asked in your post! You asked: "Is God in essence "ONE"? Or is He in essence "THREE"? What difference does it make to us if we believe one way or the other?" The situation with modalism is a tricky one. It has been declared a heresy by the church, but it does affirm the full Deity of Christ. So, in that sense, I don't have as much problem with it as some "heresies"! :-) However, modalism (to me) doesn't do justice to the passage in Scripture which focus on the 'seperateness' of the members of the Godhead. Allow me to present two examples and then I'll await your response. 1) Gen. 19:24 says, "Then the LORD rained down burning sulfur on Sodom and Gomorrah—from the LORD out of the heavens." This is an interesting verse. We have here a picture of the Lord in the plain calling down destruction upon Sodom and Gomorrah from the Lord in the Heavens. Two distincts 'persons' who are both called Lord. This seems to be a clear case where modalism doesn't work. We don't have 'one' at work here, but 'two' members of the Godhead. 2) John 14:16 says, "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever—" The key word here is 'another'. This is the Greek word 'allos'. It is a demonstrative pronoun which always indicates numerical distinction. In modalism, how can the Holy Spirit be a numerically distinct individual? If I gave you a Snickers (my favorite) candy bar and then said that I would give you another one, would I being giving you another one if I simply took back the Snickers, called it a Mars Bar and gave it back to you? 'Another' indicates an actual numerical distinction. I'll stop here since this is such a broad topic. One of my pet peeves is when people try to cram 50,000 points into one post! :-) Thanks again for your attitude my brother in Christ, fellow preacher, and fellow 'Tim'. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | 10ECPreacher | 37601 | ||
Greetings again, fellow Tim! Thank you for your gracious words. 1) I believe that God manifested Himself in human form in the OT (some call this a theophany). That does not mean that He was not still an eternal, invisible, infinite Spirit, omnipresent, omniscient and omnipotent. So I see no problem with the Lord presenting Himself to men in human form for a special purpose and yet retaining His existence as a Spirit that fills all space. 2) I believe that the "other Counsellor" is the Spirit of Truth, or the Holy Spirit, which is indeed the Spirit of Christ. The difference was in the fact that after His death, burial, resurrection and ascension, His Spirit would no longer merely be with them, but it would be in them. Once Jesus Christ was resurrected from mortality to immortality and the perishable body became imperishable, then the gift of the Holy Spirit was made available to all men as the earnest of our inheritance--eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. The "allos" difference is referring to the fact that the body of Christ had not yet been glorified; it was at that time mortal and perishable. After His resurrection He had a glorified body, and then eternality became available to humanity through the gift of the Holy Spirit. I trust that I have been clear. If not, please advise and I will try again. Kind regards, Tim D. Cormier Tennessee Preacher |
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4 | Is God ONE or is God THREE? | James 2:19 | Morant61 | 37607 | ||
Greetings Tim! Thanks for your response my friend. Let me respond to your responses! :-) 1) If you have no problem with the Lord being physically on earth, while at the same time being the Lord in heaven, why do you have a problem with a Trinitarian saying that three distinct Persons are one God? In Genesis, there is a geographical distintion made between the God on the plain and the God in Heaven. So, if God can be geographically distrinct, why can't three distinct Persons be one God? 2) Your first response wasn't bad, but this one needs some work! :-) 'Allos' does not indicate qualitative distinction, but numerical distinction. Thus, the verse isn't saying I will give you a different kind of comforter, it is saying I will give you 'another - numerically distinct' comforter. If you look at how the word is used throughout the NT, you will find that it aways refers to 'someone else', not 'myself - in a different form'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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