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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the Greek Interlinear correct? | 2 Tim 2:26 | Morant61 | 32000 | ||
Greetings Aquila! I wish there was a way that we could actually type in Greek on this forum. It would make looking at questions like this easier. Either of the pronouns could refer to either Satan or God. Contextually, I think it is best to take them both as references to Satan. Here is why: The text of 2 Tim. 2:26 is referring to those who oppose Timothy in verse 25. The verse literally reads: "and they may regain their senses from the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him unto that one's will." (My literal translation) As I mentioned earlier, there are three ways of reading this last clause. 1) All of it refers to Satan. 2) All of it refers to God. 3) The first part refers to Satan, and the second pronoun refers to God. Option 3 doesn't make a lot of sense. The only point in it's favor is the fact that two very different pronouns are used. However, this may simply be for the sake of variety and emphasis. Option 2 would make sense, except that those who opposed Timothy haven't yet repented. Therefore, could it really be said of them that "they have been take captive" by God to do His will? Option 1 seems (in my opinion) to make the best sense. It is Paul's hope that those who oppose Timothy make come to repentance and come to their senses, for they have been taken captive to do Satan's will. Thus, option 1 makes sense: a) Contextually. b) and Grammatically, since the nearest antecedent is the Devil. I would not be dogmatic about this point, but I think option 1 fits best! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Is the Greek Interlinear correct? | 2 Tim 2:26 | Ray | 32022 | ||
Hi Tim, Are you familiar with Alfred Marshall and the Interlinear that was mentioned? Can you speak to the "remoter" antecedent that was mentioned? I think that these questions of who is speaking and who is being spoken of are important as they relate to capitalization. I am interested in your points that the NIV can do no wrong in leaving it all lower case. They can do no wrong if it is not important to give God the glory when the capitalization is needed. My strong personal opinion; consider the source.:) For those who do not know me, I like the capitalizing NASB and NKJ which give us a head start in understanding a passage and leaves less to pencil in. ***I was interested also in the marginal reference in my Bible to Luke 5:10 and comparison of #222l Strong's. It points out how we can change from being in the devil's snare to catching men alive in nets ourselves for Jesus. And that comes about through knowledge of the truth that we are sinners and we all are in need of the Savior. We desire to live godly in Christ Jesus.2 Timothy 3:12,13 Later, Ray |
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3 | Is the Greek Interlinear correct? | 2 Tim 2:26 | Morant61 | 32046 | ||
Greetings Ray! I'm not familiar with Alfred Marshall, but the "remote" antecedent would be 'God' in verse 25. Luke 5:10 is the only other verse were the verb "taken captive" is used. There is refers to catching fish. I prefer the NIV's leaving both uncapitalized simply because I don't think either pronoun refers to God. If they did, I would capitalize them. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Is the Greek Interlinear correct? | 2 Tim 2:26 | Ray | 32093 | ||
Hi Tim, I guess we'll have to hear from aquila to learn if it is a "remote" antecedent or "remoter" than that. I would agree that it is only remotely possible that it refers back to verse 25. I am, along with aquila, interested to know if there is some "rule" that we are not aware of. You wrote that Luke 5:10 spoke of catching fish but actually it reads, "And Jesus said to Simon, "Do not fear, from now on you will be catching men." And they left their nets and everything behind and followed Him. I am glad that you would allow and even encourage people to write in their Bibles; even to change capitalizations as they are led by God. And of course I am glad that we can agree on this verse.:) Later, Ray |
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5 | Is the Greek Interlinear correct? | 2 Tim 2:26 | Morant61 | 32122 | ||
Greetings Ray! Sorry, but the only rule is that the pronoun has to agree with it's antecedent in gender and in number. Generally speaking, they will be somewhat near their antecedent. In this passage, either 'devil' or 'God' could be the antecedent of either pronoun, but 'devil' is nearer. Sorry about the fish! I was thinking of the net! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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