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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | What is apostasy? | 2 Thess 2:3 | ebrain | 187491 | ||
Hi Vincent, and thank you for your question. The Greek word from which we get "apostasy", can have more than one meaning, as the material bellow indicates, which I hope will be of help tp you. The Lord bless you. ebrain. Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, -2 Thessalonians 2:3 I believe that there is a strong possibility that 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is speaking of the rapture. What do I mean? Some pretribulationists, like myself, think that the Greek noun apostasia, usually translated "apostasy," is a reference to the rapture and should be translated "departure." Thus, this passage would be saying that the day of the Lord will not come until the rapture comes before it. If apostasia is a reference to a physical departure, then 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is strong evidence for pretribulationism. The Meaning of Apostasia The Greek noun apostasia is only used twice in the New Testament. In addition to 2 Thessalonians 2:3, it occurs in Acts 21:21 where, speaking of Paul, it is said, "that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake (apostasia)Moses." The word is a Greek compound of apo " from" and istemi "stand." Thus, it has the core meaning of "away from" or "departure." The Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon defines apostasia first as "defection, revolt;" then secondly as "departure, disappearance."[1] Gordon Lewis explains how the verb from which the noun apostasia is derived supports the basic meaning of departure in the following: The verb may mean to remove spatially. There is little reason then to deny that the noun can mean such a spatial removal or departure. Since the noun is used only one other time in the New Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts 21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical meaning is necessarily determined. The verb is used fifteen times in the New Testament. Of these fifteen, only three have anything to do with a departure from the faith (Luke 8;13; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb 3:12). The word is used for departing from iniquity (2 Tim. 2:19), from ungodly men(1 Tim. 6:5), from the temple (Luke 2:27), from the body (2 Cor. 12:8), and from persons (Acts 12:10; Luke 4:13).[2] "It is with full assurance of proper exegetical study and with complete confidence in the original languages," concludes Daniel Davey, "that the word meaning of apostasia is defined as departure."[3] Paul Lee Tan adds the following: What precisely does Paul mean when he says that "the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article "the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for "falling away", taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean "to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is "to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls "the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.[4] So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith. |
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2 | Are Rapture and Apostasy the same thing? | 2 Thess 2:3 | Vincent | 187770 | ||
From ebrain: "What precisely does Paul mean when he says that "the falling away" (2:3) must come before the tribulation? The definite article "the" denotes that this will be a definite event, an event distinct from the appearance of the Man of Sin. The Greek word for "falling away", taken by itself, does not mean religious apostasy or defection. Neither does the word mean "to fall," as the Greeks have another word for that. [pipto, I fall; TDI] The best translation of the word is "to depart." The apostle Paul refers here to a definite event which he calls "the departure," and which will occur just before the start of the tribulation. This is the rapture of the church.[4] So the word has the core meaning of departure and it depends upon the context to determine whether it is used to mean physical departure or an abstract departure such as departure from the faith." So are the rapture and the apostasy of the church the same thing? Vincent |
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3 | Are Rapture and Apostasy the same thing? | 2 Thess 2:3 | mark d seyler | 187774 | ||
Hi Vincent, Since the church has know mass apostasy since the beginning, I don't see how apostasy in the English sense is a sign of anything. But apostasia in the Greek since, departure, seems to fit well. This would mean Paul is telling the Thess. church that the Day of the LORD comes after the departure, and the revealing of the man of sin. "Apostasia" could be a spatial departure, or it could be some other departure. For me, the context, theme, and Paul's mention that he had previously taught them about this all seem to point to this being the rapture. Love in Christ, Mark |
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4 | Are Rapture and Apostasy the same thing? | 2 Thess 2:3 | Vincent | 187776 | ||
""Apostasia" could be a spatial departure, or it could be some other departure. For me, the context, theme, and Paul's mention that he had previously taught them about this all seem to point to this being the rapture. Love in Christ, Mark" Why doesn't the church generally teach this then? Vincent |
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5 | Are Rapture and Apostasy the same thing? | 2 Thess 2:3 | mark d seyler | 187778 | ||
Hi Vincent, Its not a majority view. I suspect a great many people are simply unaware of this information. Several early English translations used "the departure", but that was discarded in favor of "apostasy", falling away, rebellion, and such. There are numerous people who don't teach the rapture at all. There are a great many who do not believe that the 70th week is yet to be fulfilled, that there will be a literal 1000 years while Christ rules the world from Jerusalem, prior to the New Heaven and Earth. So my guess is that people don't generally teach this either because they are unaware of this knowledge, or they do not believe it should be interpreted this way and they don't want to confuse with other alternatives. Just my thoughts. . . Love in Christ, Mark |
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