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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Jesus and God co-equal? | Phil 2:6 | Morant61 | 130212 | ||
Greetings Noveta! You and your husband are in our prayers. The easiest way to explain Jesus' statement about the Father is to understand the incarnation of Jesus. Phil. 2:5-11 tells us that Jesus was fully God. But, verse 6 makes it clear that, during His incarnation, Jesus placed certain restriction upon Himself in that He became fully human. As the incarnate God, Jesus was now subordinate to His Father just as any man must be to the Father. So, Jesus' statement doesn't describe an eternal and core difference between Him and the Father, but a temporary condition during His incarnation. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Jesus and God co-equal? | Phil 2:6 | Glory Bound | 130236 | ||
Truly Tim, your words are inspired, for how could anyone have made it any plainer or put it any more simple? GB |
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