Results 1 - 3 of 3
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 194656 | ||
Miller, While we can all agree that Jesus has obviously not returned, the question is- to what does the coming of that which is perfect, completed and accomplished refer? There has been a great deal of speculation regarding the meaning of this verse. I've heard it refers to the completion of the NT Canon, Christ, and even Love. However, the noun which is rendered "perfect" in 13:10 is 'to telieon' (Gr.). In Greek grammar, the noun must agree in gender with that to which it refers. Since "perfect" is in the neuter gender, it must have a corresponding agreement to the object referred. 'Jesus' is in the masculine gender and would thereby not agree! Grammatically, that's probably not the answer! My best, reasoned asnwer is that no one really seems to know what the "perfect" is! "...But then I shall know even as I have been known" (Vs. 12) Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
||||||
2 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | miller521 | 194687 | ||
REad through John Chapter 1, it tells us that Jesus IS the Word of God. So no matter if the perfect is saying 'Word' or 'Christ' its the same thing. The perfected Word has always been, it was in the beginning. If we were to say Paul was saying when the perfect Word has come, well he would have to be in past tense, because the perfected Word already came from God, it existed in the beginning and was made manifested among men when he was born in the manger. | ||||||
3 | Are there any true prophets/prophetss' t | Eph 4:11 | BradK | 194692 | ||
Wow, miller your ignorance of Greek grammar is only exceeded by your silliness! Stop playing games and stick with the the study of scripture. You do not know what you're saying! BradK |
||||||