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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Mommapbs | 136719 | ||
Greetings Tim - after reading your posts on this verse I have pondered both presentations. I'm wondering, can satan actually "blind" as God has done (Is 6:10 et al)or can he but "deceive" or hide the truth? Blessings to you! t |
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2 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | srbaegon | 136722 | ||
Hello Mommapbs, I've followed Tim's line of reasoning as well and came up with the same question. It's quite interesting. Steve |
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3 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | xmikx | 136745 | ||
This is a very interesting point! It does make one ponder this idea. I use www.biblegateway.com as a resource for reading while at work. This website allows the user to choose between 19 different translations of the Bible. Now, I have not looked at each and every one of them, but the ones that I have used for reading/studying have used both god and God. Tim, I now your point about Greek not using capitalization, but each of the translations I have used from biblegateway use both little g god and BIG G God. Tim, how are you able to understand what Paul means each time he uses the word God or god? If Greek has no capitalization, then how do you know the translation you use is correct when it reads: god of this world? All of the 19 translations listed at biblegateway.com use either god of this world or even say Satan or the devil. Not one of them uses God (big G). At the end of this verse, Paul says "who is the image of God." Now, every translation I have ever seen uses big G God at the end of this verse and little g god at the beginning of this verse. Tim, how can you not see the difference? These translations were made by people much smarter than I. They have done the research and study to interpret the old ancient texts that are available to the scholars doing the translation. Some translations/versions (New Living, New Life, Wycliffe) use either Satan or the devil in this verse to further clarify who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. You may or may not agree with or even like these three versions of the Bible. That is your choice, but I am certain that Paul is referring to Satan when he says, the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers so that they cannont see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. I have seen on this topic the use of how Moses would veil his face as a reference to how God would blind or veil the minds of the unbelieving. Please read the following which is referenced in 2 Cor 3:13. This is Ex 34:33-35. Exodus 34 33 When Moses had finished speaking with them, (1) he put a veil over his face. 34 But whenever Moses went in before the LORD to speak with Him, (2) he would take off the veil until he came out; and whenever he came out and spoke to the sons of Israel what he had been commanded, 35 (3) the sons of Israel would see the face of Moses, that the skin of Moses' face shone. So Moses would replace the veil over his face until he went in to speak with Him. This tells how Moses' face would shine because he had just spoken to God. He would put a veil over his face because Aaron and the sons of Israel were afraid to come near him. Moses then called to them and they came forward and Moses told them what the LORD had commanded them to do. Moses would speak to the LORD, deliver the message from the LORD (with his face shining to show he was under the LORD's influence if you will) and then put the veil over his face after delivering the message. The veil was to "hide" the fading glory that was on Moses' face. See this mentioned in 2 Cor 3:13. As you all know, Paul wrote this as a letter to the church at Corinth. If you read this as one should read a letter (from the beginning) Paul first mentions Satan in 2 Cor 2:11 and he uses the word Satan for this reference. Please read 2 Cor 4:3 and then verse 4. 3 And even if our (7) gospel is (8) veiled, it is veiled to (9) those who are perishing, 4 in whose case (10) the god of (11) this world has (12) blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the (13) light of the gospel of the (14) glory of Christ, who is the (15) image of God. (9) is 1 Cor 1:18 and says how the word of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved, it is the power of God. It is so clear who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. He is referring to Satan as the god of this world and not God as the god of this world. |
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4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Morant61 | 136795 | ||
Greetings Xmikx! As I have said all along my friend, my point is simply this: The word 'Satan' is not used in the verse. Therefore, it is a matter of interpretation, not fact, to say that 'Satan is the god of this world'! Just as you interpret it to mean Satan, I interpret it to mean the only true God. Both are an interpretation! :-) You wrote: "Tim, I now your point about Greek not using capitalization, but each of the translations I have used from biblegateway use both little g god and BIG G God. Tim, how are you able to understand what Paul means each time he uses the word God or god? If Greek has no capitalization, then how do you know the translation you use is correct when it reads: god of this world?" There are many elements of intepretation involved in translation. Since there was no capitalization in Greek, every time we choose to capitalize a word in Greek we are 'forcing' our English standards upon the text. But, our choice can not then be used as evidence of what the orginal actually meant! :-) In the process of my interpretation, I have relied on several pieces of evidence. 1) There is no verse in Scripture where Satan is explicitly called a god. 2) The definite article is used in 2 Cor. 4:4. It is a reference to 'ho theos', not just a 'theos'. 3) Scripture is quite clear that while some things are called gods, there are in fact no other gods. 4) God is the only one spoken of as 'blinding' people in Scripture. Using this data, I interpret 2 Cor. 4:4 to be a reference to the only true God. You wrote: "These translations were made by people much smarter than I. They have done the research and study to interpret the old ancient texts that are available to the scholars doing the translation." I too have read the same manuscripts! :-) None of them say 'Satan' anywhere in the text! :-) You wrote: "Some translations/versions (New Living, New Life, Wycliffe) use either Satan or the devil in this verse to further clarify who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. You may or may not agree with or even like these three versions of the Bible." Personally, I don't like any translation where words are added that are not in the text. You wrote: "As you all know, Paul wrote this as a letter to the church at Corinth. If you read this as one should read a letter (from the beginning) Paul first mentions Satan in 2 Cor 2:11 and he uses the word Satan for this reference. Please read 2 Cor 4:3 and then verse 4." Yes! Satan is mentioned in 2 Cor. 2:11. However, that does not mean that Satan is the subject of 2 Cor. 4:4! :-) Titus is mentioned in 2 Cor. 2:13, but that doesn't mean that he is the subject of 2 Cor. 4:4! ;-) 2 Cor. 2:5-11 deals with love and forgiveness for a man who was subjected to punishment by the church. One last point! The 'veil' of Moses certainly was used to hide God's glory, but notice the application that 2 Cor. 3 uses for this term 'veil'. In 2 Cor. 3:12-18, the 'veil' is over people's hearts and minds, not Moses' face. I would like your thoughts on the following verses. Who blinds people in Scripture: Rom. 11:7-8 says, "What then? What Israel sought so earnestly it did not obtain, but the elect did. The others were hardened, 8 as it is written: 'God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes so that they could not see and ears so that they could not hear, to this very day.'" Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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