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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Morant61 | 136177 | ||
Greetings Xmikx! I am so irritated at myself right now! :-) I had just finished a very well written response to your question, and I lost it! Oh well, here I go again! ;-) You asked me in a private e-mail why God would blind anyone. Allow me to answer that question here on the forum. My answer will involve looking at several passages in their context. 2 Cor. 4:4 says, “The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.” The same word for ‘blinded’ is also used in John 12:40. In John 12:40, John is trying to explain the inability of people to believe in Jesus (John 12:39). His answer was that their inability to believe was a fulfillment of the prophecy in Is. 6:10. In Is. 6:10, God deliberately causes the people to be unable to ‘see’, or to ‘hear’, or to be able to ‘understand’ (eyes, ears, mind), so that they will not respond to Him. The same point is made in Rom. 11:8, where again it says that Israel was hardened by God. This hardening is described in three ways as an inability to see, as and inability to hear, and as a spirit of stupor (an inability to understand). However, both Is. 6:11 and Rom. 11:25-32 make it clear that this hardening is not permanent, but temporary. The result of the hardening is that all men may now receive mercy (Rom. 11:32). How does this relate to 2 Cor. 4:4? Simple! The same theme is being discussed in 2 Cor. 3-5. Look at the similar words that are found in 2 Cor. 3. 2 Cor. 3:13 speaks of Moses ‘veiling’ his face to hide the glory of God. Paul then goes on to use that imagery of a ‘veil’ as a metaphor for being unable to see, or to hear, or to understand either the Law or the Gospel. 2 Cor. 3:14 states that the Israelites minds were made dull and that a veil remains to this day whenever the old covenant is read. He also describes their hearts as being veiled in 2 Cor. 3:15. The only time this veil is removed is when someone comes to Christ (2 Cor. 3:14 and 16). It is in this sense that the Gospel is veiled to unbelievers in 2 Cor. 4:4. They can not see, hear, or understand the Gospel or see the glory of God. However, God’s glory is being reflected by those of us who have come to Christ (2 Cor. 3:18). And, He has made us His ambassadors to reach out to this world of darkness with the message of reconciliation (2 Cor. 5:20). God’s grace is reaching more and more with the light of the Gospel (2 Cor. 4:15). So, to answer your question as to why God would blind anyone – He blinded them so that He might extend His grace out to all the world, not just to physical Israel (Rom. 11:25-32). I hope this clarifies why I believe that the ‘ho theos’ of 2 Cor. 4:4 is none other than Jehovah Himself, and not Satan. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Ray | 136808 | ||
Hi Tim, I feel your pain in losing a post to cyberspace. When I have lost them, I just tell myself that it doesn't hurt to study things over and over and it doesn't hurt to write many drafts of our thoughts. I would like to talk with you about 2 Corinthians 4:6 because that verse tells us that God is the One who shines in our hearts in order for us to know God. I don't know who the "god of this age" is in verse 4, but I do know that it is God who commanded light to shine out of darkness. God is not an "it" but He is the One who would not have us blind, but rather be seeing the light. 1) I noticed tonight that 2 Corinthians 4:6 talks of Jesus Christ in the NKJ and of Christ in the NASB. I would have a total of four pronouns of Diety for the verse. What do you think? Do you have the idea that "Jesus" was left out in the NASB because all of these things had been discussed before? 2) Whether one can be blinded or deceived by Satan, the god of this age, a spirit of error, or some false teachers, we must preach the gospel so that the people will come to know the Holy One. For our gospel should lead others to the Lord, the Spirit. 2 Cor 3:17,18. From the heart, Ray |
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3 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Morant61 | 136827 | ||
Greetings Ray! The textual evidence for 2 Cor. 4:6 is split three ways. Some manuscripts read 'Jesus Christ' (the manuscript support for this reading is slightly better than the other two readings). Some manuscripts read 'Christ'. Some manuscripts read 'Christ Jesus'. Any of the three readings could be legit, but most scholars think that 'Christ' is the original reading and that latter scribes simply added 'Jesus' either before or after it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Ray | 137530 | ||
Hi Tim, I hesitate to add to this thread because of its length already. I am wondering however, if after all this discussion whether you feel the same need to stress the fact that there is no other god. You have said that Satan is not the god of this world, I believe, because of your belief in there being no other god. Has anything changed in your thoughts on this? From the heart, Ray |
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5 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Morant61 | 137542 | ||
Greetings Ray! Actually, I have only said that 2 Cor. 4:4 does not SAY that Satan is the god of this world. :-) That was the orginal point of my posts. I happen to believe that 2 Cor. 4:4 refers to God the Father, but that is not because of any need on my part! ;-) I believe, per Scripture, that many things are CALLED gods, but that they are not REALLY gods at all. Some people worship a hunk of wood, but it is not by nature a god. Some people worship themselves, but they are not gods. It is possible that Satan could be the 'god of this world' in that some may worship him, but that does not in fact make him a god. Scripture is clear that there are many things that are called gods, but there is only one god! (I did not use a capital in the previous verse so that you would not misunderstand my point. I am not distinguishing between 'god' and 'God' in my previous paragraph. I am distinguishing between being called a god and actually being a god.) I hope my point is clear my friend! By the way, I didn't stress the point that there is 'no other god'! God did! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6 | 2 Cor 4:4 | 2 Cor 4:4 | Ray | 137576 | ||
Hi Tim, Like I said, I hesitate to continue this long thread. But lets go to a different thread and verse and discuss this more. 1) You have said that "Scripture is clear that there are many things that are called gods, but there is only one god!" Perhaps this is the verse where we should start our new thread. You are saying that there are many things that are called gods, but there is only one actual, true god. That is what I disagree with. 2) You have said here that God tells us that there is 'no other god'. :-) But that is not the case. You yourself have told us that the Greek says that "there is no other gods". Lets go to 1 Cor 8:5 or 6 and discuss it there, O.K.? From the heart, Ray |
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