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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | where did this teaching come from? | Acts 2:37 | Morant61 | 53155 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! I'll take that question! Per our previous discussion about the grammar of Acts 2:38, the answer is 'No'! There is no way that the singular command to 'be baptized' can be associated with the plural phrase 'for the remission of your sins'. It is however associated with the plural command to 'repent'. Thus, we are command to 'repent' for the remission of sins, but we are not commanded to be 'baptized' for the remission of sins. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | where did this teaching come from? | Acts 2:37 | Grace and Truth | 53163 | ||
Tim, You're looking at the wrong words in the text, the word to observe is (and) THESAURUS conj. in addition to, also, including, plus, together with, as well as, furthermore, moreover. (And) is the key word that ties the two together. Repent AND be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. You cannot throw the AND out of the text! |
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3 | where did this teaching come from? | Acts 2:37 | Morant61 | 53179 | ||
Greetings Grace and Truth! If the commands to 'repent' and 'be baptized' were both plural, you would be absolutely correct. In that case, two commands of equal weight, would be connected to a single promise. However, this is not the situation here. The use of 'kai' does not invalidate the grammatical point which I have stressed over and over again. In other words, 'kai' does not make the command to 'be baptized' plural. Greek uses 'kai' differently than an English 'and'. It can be a connective. It can be an adversative. It be used as to place emphasis. It can be used to start a new clause. It can even be simply placed at the beginning of a sentence and untranslatable. But, it doesn't change the facts of grammar! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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