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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Defending themselves or accusing Jesus? | John 8:41 | biblicalman | 229335 | ||
Hi Ed, I don't quite understand your problem. I cited three Jewish sources, as follows, This is in fact stated in the Halakah where it is emphasised that the child of a premarital union where the marriage is consummated is not to be seen as a mamzer (illegitimate child). Indeed in the Mishnah it is stated that one way by which betrothal takes place is by sexual relations. 'Said Rabbi Joseph, a girl is betrothed by sexual intercourse' (M Nid 5.4). In the section headed 'Betrothal' (quiddushim) it says, A woman is acquired as a wife in one of three ways, by money, by contract, or by sexual intercourse' (1.1). In no instance is there any hint of disapproval of the sexual relations. Do you not count these as sources? In two I give chapter and verse. Referencing works in general can give an untrue impression. Edersheim does not cite any ancient Jewish preChristian source that disagrees with what I have said about betrothal and marriage. They do not exist. Best wishes |
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2 | Defending themselves or accusing Jesus? | John 8:41 | EdB | 229336 | ||
Okay I understand what you are saying now. You are referencing currently available copies of the Halakah and the Mishnah. And you are right as Tim also pointed out sexual relations would start or institute a betrothal. However that was more of, “we got a situation and something needs to be done,” type of thing. It certainly does not give the normal betrothed couple a pass on premarital sex. Now backing up the original question that started this thread the correct and finite answer would be in Jewish society if the father or in the case of Jesus his step father Joseph, having publicly accepted the child as his own the stigma or question of illegitimacy would never be thought of. |
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