Results 1 - 12 of 12
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 14774 | ||
Hi Nolan, I go with versions that have "I am the Way, and the Truth, and the Life;" Any thoughts there? I wanted to suggest to you and KINDNESS that it is important to know the Truth and it is important to know that "the Son does remain forever." Any thoughts on John 8:35? |
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2 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 14835 | ||
Hello Ray! Yes, I agree, but there is only one translation that capitalizes "Way, Truth, and Life" in John 14:6.. The Amplified Bible states, "Jesus said to him, I am the Way and the Truth and the Life; no one comes to the Father except by (through) Me." However, the NKJV states, "Jesus said to him, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me." The NASB states, "Jesus said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father but through Me." The fact that there is only one translation (that capitalizes Way, Truth and Life), this does not take away from the overall meaning of this passage, and all three of these translations capitalize "Me" at the end. John 8:35 is interesting.. The NASB does not capitalize "son" in this verse, but does in the very next verse. The NKJV does the same thing. The Amplified Bible states this verse in this way, "Now a slave does not remain in a household permanently (forever); the son [of the house] does remain forever." So the very text of the Amplified better explains the context and use of capitalization here. Good study! Nolan |
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3 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 15046 | ||
Hi Nolan, Why are you so quick to think that the Son (of the house) could not be Christ? Compare John 8:35 with John 15:20, "A slave is not greater than his master (Master)." and also Hebrews 3:6, "...but Christ was faithful as a Son over His house whose house we are, if we hold fast our confidence and the boast of our hope firm until the end." | ||||||
4 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 15049 | ||
Hello Ray! In the post that you have responded to, I have stated: "John 8:35 is interesting.. The NASB does not capitalize "son" in this verse, but does in the very next verse. The NKJV does the same thing. The Amplified Bible states this verse in this way, "Now a slave does not remain in a household permanently (forever); the son [of the house] does remain forever." So the very text of the Amplified better explains the context and use of capitalization here." So the question here isn't "why am I so quick to think", but rather "why is the Amplified, NKJV, NASB (or any other translation for that matter) so quick to think" that the word 'son' in John 8:35 should not be capitalized... By looking at the context of the illustration that Jesus gave in this verse, I clearly see that He does not refer to Himself when He explained the relationship of the 'son' to the house and how that is different from the relationship to a 'slave' of the house. In John 8:35, Jesus is simply saying 'son of the house' here. I see no reason at all to even remotely think that Jesus is in some way referring to Himself in this passage. I take this passage as stating a differentiation between a son and a slave. I do not see Jesus here saying anything about Himself. However, IN THE VERY NEXT VERSE, Jesus uses this exact illustration to apply to Himself. And yes, "Son" in John 8:36 IS capitalized, even in the NIV. :) I hope this helps Ray! --Nolan |
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5 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 15117 | ||
Hi Nolan, Your point is well taken about the translators choice of capitalization; and you stood up for yourself very well. I didn't mean to sound that harsh. I see the thirty-sixth verse referring to the previous one and I capitalize "the Son does remain forever." I see a contrast between the slave to sin and the Son; a contrast between the slave and the Master (see also John 15:20 and Matthew 15:27). I compare John 8:32 with Romans 6:10-22,"but the life that He lives..."-"But now having been freed from sin and enslaved to God, you derive your benefit, resulting in sanctification, and the outcome, eternal life." So I would encourage anyone to add capitalization to "their own personal copies". In this case, three that are not capitalized in the NASB or NKJ; "the Son does remain forever" and verse 32, "and you will know the Truth and the Truth shall set you free." I would encourage the comparison of John 8:32 here and John 14:7, "from now on you know Him, and have seen Him." See also John 15:15, "No longer do I call you slaves, for the slave does not know what his master (Master) is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I have heard from My Father I have made known to you. |
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6 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 15225 | ||
Dear Ray, You have made some very interesting and Scripture probing observations here! One of the most intriguing here has to do with the contrast between slave and son, found in John 8:35, 15:20 and Matthew 15:27.. And I'm sure that we will find and study more, my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Nolan |
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7 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 141084 | ||
John 8:34, "Jesus answered them, "Truly, truly, (I) say to you, everyone who commits sin is the slave of sin. 35 And the slave does not remain in the house forever; the **son does remain forever. 36 If therefore the Son shall make you free, you shall be free indeed." John 15:16, "You did not choose Me, but (I) chose you, and appointed you, that you should go and bear fruit, and that your fruit should remain,..." 1) John 15:23, "He who hates Me/ hates My Father as well." John 8:41, "You are doing the deeds of your father." They said to Him/, "We were not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God." 2) Contrast Matthew 15:25, "But she came and began to bow down before Him/, saying, "Lord, help me!" 26 And He answered and said, "It is not good to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs." 27 But she said, "Yes, (Lord); but even the dogs feed on the crumbs which fall from their **masters' table." Is that the way you interpret the verses as far as capitalization is concerned? Of course the **stars and parentheses are mine for comparisons. From the heart, Ray |
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8 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 141435 | ||
Greetings Ray! I hope you have been well, my friend! Continuing our 2001 discussion on capitalization, we were studying from both the NASB and NKJV, which both seem to give respect to Deity by capitalizing specific nouns and pronouns within their biblical text. John 8:34 speaks of slaves and sons, stating that everyone (even a son) who commits sin is a slave to sin. Here is how I interpret verse 35: Even though everyone (a son) who commits sin becomes a slave to it, we (the sons) do not have to be slaves forever. But the fact that we have sinned makes us remember our human nature- that even our righteousness is nothing but fithly rags before our Holy Lord. I believe that verse 35 speaks more of us, in that we are bound to our sin and cannot be free from it by any means save cleansing from our Lord. Verse 36 is clearly speaking of the Lord Himself, who is the only One who can set us free from the bondage of our sin. I believe that Jesus is also speaking and referring to Himself in 15:16 and in 15:23. But John 8:41 and Matthew 15:25-27 are examples of where other people are speaking about Jesus or God the Father. So therefore, these verses are viewed in a different light then when Jesus is speaking about Himself. I believe that in John 8:41, the Jews are referring to God and referring to Him as Father, even though they fail to realize that the Son was standing right there in front of their eyes! Therefore, when the NASB and NKJV capitalize Father in 8:41, I believe that it is justified within the context, since they were referring to the Most High. As for Matthew 15:27, I believe that the woman is simply continuing her point, which, metaphorically compares the dogs and the master with the Lord and creation, instead of directly referring to the Master Himself. It is this understanding, I believe, that shows that the woman has a grasp of faith that Jesus honors by healing her. The NKJV and NASB both have 'master' in lowercase in this verse. Great to talk to you again! Makarios |
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9 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 141450 | ||
Hi Makarios, It is indeed good to talk to you again. It has been close to four years since we talked about these things, these nouns and pronouns of God. We are getting closer in agreement, for I now go with your "son" for John 8:35 and your "masters' table" for Matthew 15:27. In passing, I do not understand your reference to John 15:16 and 15:23. Can we talk about John 15:20 for a while? The verse starts "Remember the word that I said to you", thus the reference is to John 13:16. John 13:16, "Truly, truly, (I) say to you, a slave is not greater than his master; neither is one who is sent greater than the one who sent him. 17 If you know these things, you are blessed if you do them." Let's look at these things then. The verse is talking about the example of theTeacher washing the feet of His listeners and saying that if He can do that for them, then they should be willing to wash one another's feet. They are all equals; "a slave is not greater than his master; neither is one who is sent greater than the one who sent him." 1) But in contrast to John 13:16, John 15:21 talks about "the One who sent Me." So I believe that the message there is that "A slave is not greater than his *Master." The message is that if the Master is persecuted, then the slave will be also; and if they kept His word, they will keep ours also. They need to know the One. Keep in touch. When did you get married? I am doing well although in chemo therapy again. From the heart, Ray |
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10 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 141539 | ||
Greetings Ray, I will continue to pray for you while you are undergoing chemo therapy. My wife and I were married on 11/20/2004! As you have probably seen, I have been spending a lot of time away from the Forum since late 2003. However, I have updated my User Profile and changed some Bible links. John 15:20 "Remember the word that I said to you, 'A slave is not greater than his master.' If they persecuted Me, they will also persecute you; if they kept My word, they will keep yours also." If we take a look at this verse as well as John 13:16, we see Jesus speaking of the relationship between a slave and his master. If we capitalize 'master' here in 15:20, then we are implying a reference of Deity to the word 'master;' a reference that I don't believe that Jesus was making in the illustration itself. When Jesus says, "A slave is not greater than his master", I believe that He is simply making a statment about the slave/master relationship and then applying that as an illustration in the rest of 15:20 and 15:21 to help us realize more about our relationship to Him. Therefore, if the statement "A slave is not greater than his master" is simply being used as an illustration, then the word 'master' does not necessarily need to be capitalized; in fact, it should not be capitalized, and I will show you why.. Let's look at this statement "A slave is not greater than his master" in an "inverse" way: If we go ahead and capitalize 'master' under the assumption that it is referring to Jesus, then the word 'slave' would be referring to us. Now that we have 'master' referring to Jesus (capitalized) and 'slave' referring to us, let's look at the relationships now caused by this association.. I agree, the word 'master' does accurately describe Jesus in our relationship with Him. However, does the word 'slave' accurately describe us in our relationship to Jesus? Yes, like Paul, we are all slaves to the gospel. But as John 15:15 tells us, we are so much more than 'slaves' to Him. Therefore, if we were to apply a meaning of Deity to 'master' in the statement "A slave is not greater than his master", then that would not be accurate because that would demean (and possibly contradict) Jesus' statement about our relationship to Him in 15:15. We are so much more than just slaves to Him and to the gospel. As you can see, there is sufficient reason for keeping the word 'master' uncapitalized, as both the NKJV and NASB have it. But, I congratulate you on your good find! And keep up your interesting work! I hope that you keep up your zeal in studying capitalization in scripture, despite what I think.. :) Blessings to you, Makarios |
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11 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Ray | 141555 | ||
Hi Makarios, I hear what you are saying, however I still think that the speaking of the "One who sent Me" would be well combined with a capitalized Master. That is in contrast to the "one who sent him" and the master of John 12:16. Thanks for talking with me. I will be asking a question about Ezekiel 20 if you are looking for another thread to compare the NASB and the NKJ. From the heart, Ray |
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12 | In John 18:38 Did Pilate want truth? | John 15:1 | Makarios | 141571 | ||
Hi Ray! Thank you for the note! Perhaps we are not as close as we thought on John 15 or John 12, but that is Ok. Sure, I'd be willing to look at Ezekiel 20 with you. Take care! Blessings to you, Makarios |
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