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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | ebrain | 178519 | ||
Mat 5:28 But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart. Hi Mark. What really matters is what did Jesue have in mind when He used the word "Lust", it is clear from Matthew 5:28, above that He ment that state of mind in a man which leads to "Adultery" The question therefore, is not what the Greek word might, or might not mean, but what Jesus intended it to mean. Bless you brother. ebrain. |
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2 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | kalos | 178561 | ||
We know what the Bible means by what it says -- not by reading minds or by ignoring the Greek definition of the words being used. If it's true that what the Greek word lust means and what Jesus means are not the same thing, then either Jesus, the Gospel writer, or the translator picked the wrong word, didn't they? How is it that Jesus used a word that did not really mean what he had in mind when he used it? |
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3 | Mat 5:27-28. Adultery. | Prov 5:1 | kalos | 178562 | ||
P.S. If we do not know what Jesus meant by the words he used, then how do we know what he meant? Of course, the answer is that if we can't know what he meant by what he said, then we just can't know. The Word of God is the expression of the thoughts of God. The words of Christ are the expression of the thoughts of Christ. |
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