Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3904 | ||
Hey there JVH.. Yes, the events of Job quite possibly occurred around the time of Moses and it very well is a possibility that Moses could have been a contemporary of Job. I was mistaken in what I said above, since Moses was not 'long since dead' at the time of Job. However, what I meant to say was that Moses was 'long since dead' by the probable time that Job had been written, which would be around Solomon's time. But we do not know for sure and we can only use the clues that we find in the text. However, this in no way takes away from the point that I tried to make above:.....1) That it is highly probable that Moses and the author of Job are two different people......2) That the same word used by Moses in Genesis 6:4 for 'sons' could be used by the author of Job in Job 1:6 to refer to angels. These are the two notes/questions that I tried to make. I will try to be more clear when I write my posts. | ||||||
2 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | kalos | 3912 | ||
Hi, Nolan! Good to hear from you. Not to dispute with you, but for the sake of clarification, may I say: 1) What I meant was that the events of Job probably occurred around the time of Abraham, 500 years BEFORE Moses. So Abraham (2000 B.C.), not Moses (1500 B.C.), was probably a contemporary of Job. . . . 2) There is no hard evidence on which to base the assumption that Moses was long since dead by the time of the writing of the book of Job. Moses may have been the author and, timewise, could have been the author of Job, though there is no evidence that Moses WAS the author of Job. It could have been someone else. Nowhere in Job does it tell us who the author was. When I looked it up, I found it also could have been Solomon (approx. 1,000 B.C.). . . . 3) I agree with you: it is possible that Moses and the author of Job are two different people. . . . 4) I agree with you, "That the same word used by Moses in Genesis 6:4 for 'sons' *could* be used by the author of Job in Job 1:6 to refer to angels." . . . 5) Please consider the following: "Gen 6:1-4 *sons of God.* The 'sons of God' may mean God's created, supernatural beings, who were no longer godly in character (6.3). Some commentators believe, however, that this expression refers to the 'godly line' of Seth and that 'daughters of humans' (v. 4 in the NRSV) refer to women from the line of Cain. Most likely the phrase refers to those descendants of Seth who trusted in the Lord but whose children intermarried with women descended from Cain. Those marriages were not with angels then, but between godly and ungodly human families. ANGELS NEITHER MARRY NOR ARE GIVEN IN MARRIAGE (emphasis by caps are mine) (Mt 22:30), so that this verse hardly applies to them. ... *Nephilim* are strong, violent, tyrannous men of great wickedness. It may well be that the explanation of these verses has been lost to us." (NRSV Harper Study Bible, Harold Lindsell, Ph.D., D.D., Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan, 1991) . . . Again, my intent is to clarify my position, not to PROVE that I have the one right answer. If I knew for certain who wrote Job and who the sons of God in Gen 6:4 were, would I being hanging out at the Forum on a Tuesday morning? :-) |
||||||