Results 1 - 9 of 9
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Who were the son's of God in Job? | Gen 6:4 | granma_ota | 3227 | ||
What about Job 38:7? God is speaking and is talking of the creation of the world - before man - and says "When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy?" These could not have been men since God was laying the foundation of the earth. |
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2 | Who were the son's of God in Job? | Gen 6:4 | granma_ota | 3229 | ||
Sorry. But also reference 2 Peter 2:4, "For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment;" and Jude 1:6-7, "And angels who did not keep their own domain, but abandoned their proper abode, He has kept in eternal bonds under darkness for the judgment of the great day, 7 just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them, since they in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh, are exhibited as an example in undergoing the punishment of eternal fire." These seem to be referring to the Genesis episode. |
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3 | Who were the son's of God in Job? | Gen 6:4 | Ron | 3252 | ||
The context of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6-7 show that the angels (along with those who came out of Egypt, Sodom and Gomorrah, and the people in the days of Noah) are given as examples to assure that the "filthy dreamers" will also pay for their sins. Read the context in a reliable translation and you will find that these verses do not give support for you view. Are you understanding that the phrase "since they in the same way as these indulged in gross immorality... to refer to the angels? If you read the KJV or the ASV you will see that this phrase refers to the cities of the plain that were destroyed when Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed, not to the angels. Remember that Jesus said that the "angels neither marry or are given in marriage." How could they procreate with human beings? Especially since they are spirits and human beings procreate physically. In reference to Job 38:15, we must understand that the context must be studied to determine the meaning of the words and that a word or phrase may be the same in two different verses but it may refer to different things. To me, the context in Job 1 requires the "sons of God" to refer to human beings. But if it did refer to angels, that does not necessarily mean that Gen. 6:4 refers to angels. |
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4 | Who were the son's of God in Job? | Gen 6:4 | granma_ota | 3254 | ||
I took that translation from the NASB which, as I understand it, is one of the most reliable translations. And of course the "angels neither marry or are given in marriage." That is why these angels fell from grace. A spirit can procreate with a human since Jesus is the proof of that. And to say the Bible means one thing in one part and another thing in another part seems to be sacrilegious. | ||||||
5 | Who were the son's of God in Job? | Gen 6:4 | Ron | 3838 | ||
Well, I might argue with you concerning the reliability of the NASB. But you really surprised me by giving Jesus' conception as an example of a spirit procreating with a human being. I suppose that you believe that since the Bible says that Mary was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit that you think the Holy Spirit fathered Jesus by having sexual relations with Mary as you seem to think the angels had sexual relations with human beings in Genesis 6:4. If that's not what you mean I hope you will say so. If it is what you mean have you thought about the consequences of such a belief? If what you imply is so, then why does the Bible call Mary a virgin? If what you say is so, then Mary committed fornication with the Holy Spirit and Jesus was an illigetimate child. The fact is that Jesus' birth was a miracle performed by the Holy Spirit. Jesus was and is the only child who has ever been born of a virgin. MARY DID NOT HAVE SEXUAL RELATIONS WITH A SPIRIT!! To take such a view is SACRILEGIOUS and it is a PERVERSION of scripture to so state! In response to the last sentence of your note just let me say that a word does not always mean the same thing in every passage in the Bible. Sometimes the meaning of the word has to be determined by the context. Take the word "serpent" for example. At times the word serpent refers to Satan (Genesis 3:1) but at other times it just refers to the animal we know as a snake (Exodus 4:3). In Genesis 49:16 Dan is referred to as a "serpent." The word serpent does not always refer to Satan. The context must determine what it refers to. Thus, there are examples of the Bible using words that do not always mean the same thing in every passage. I hope you will study further and renounce your example of Jesus' conception being the result of Mary having sexual relations with a spirit. Such a belief not only questions the legitimate birth of Jesus but it questions the purity of Mary. |
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6 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3840 | ||
Right on Ron! I most certainly agree with you! To study the use of the word 'sons' in Genesis 6:4, I went straight to the New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance which says that the word 'sons' used in Gen. 6:4 is the Hebrew word 'ben' (or son- the builder of a family name).. It is commonly perceived that Moses wrote the book of Genesis, and he used the word 'sons' to describe the Godly line of Seth. The author of Job is unknown, although the author was an Israelite. And Moses could not have written the book of Job since he was long since dead (Deut. 34) at the time of Job. But the author of Job used 'sons' of God to refer to angels in heaven with satan among them. So we have established that the word 'sons' that is used in Gen. 6:4 does not directly refer to angels and that the writers of Genesis and Job (while being inspired by the same Holy Spirit) used the same word to describe men in one verse and angels in another. (Genesis 6:4 and Job 1:6) I hope that this helps to clarify many things. | ||||||
7 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | kalos | 3878 | ||
There is but one sentence in your question that I am uncertain as to the meaning. You write, "And Moses could not have written the book of Job since he (who is he--Moses or Job?) was long since dead (Deut. 34) at the time of Job." If you mean Moses was long since dead at the time of Job, that is the part I don't understand. Please note the following: . . . 1) The events recorded in the book suggest a time frame early in the second millennium (approx. 2000) B.C. So Job could have been a contemporary of Abraham and, if so, would have lived 500 years before the time of Moses (which was approx. 1500 B.C). . . . 2) Scholars have placed the date when the book was written anywhere from the time of Moses (which could not be true IF Moses preceded Job) to the return of the Jews from the Babylonian exile. In all probability a date around the age of Solomon is preferable. (See p. 691, Harper Study Bible, Zondervan, 1991.) |
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8 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | Makarios | 3904 | ||
Hey there JVH.. Yes, the events of Job quite possibly occurred around the time of Moses and it very well is a possibility that Moses could have been a contemporary of Job. I was mistaken in what I said above, since Moses was not 'long since dead' at the time of Job. However, what I meant to say was that Moses was 'long since dead' by the probable time that Job had been written, which would be around Solomon's time. But we do not know for sure and we can only use the clues that we find in the text. However, this in no way takes away from the point that I tried to make above:.....1) That it is highly probable that Moses and the author of Job are two different people......2) That the same word used by Moses in Genesis 6:4 for 'sons' could be used by the author of Job in Job 1:6 to refer to angels. These are the two notes/questions that I tried to make. I will try to be more clear when I write my posts. | ||||||
9 | Textual evidence from Genesis 6:4 | Gen 6:4 | kalos | 3912 | ||
Hi, Nolan! Good to hear from you. Not to dispute with you, but for the sake of clarification, may I say: 1) What I meant was that the events of Job probably occurred around the time of Abraham, 500 years BEFORE Moses. So Abraham (2000 B.C.), not Moses (1500 B.C.), was probably a contemporary of Job. . . . 2) There is no hard evidence on which to base the assumption that Moses was long since dead by the time of the writing of the book of Job. Moses may have been the author and, timewise, could have been the author of Job, though there is no evidence that Moses WAS the author of Job. It could have been someone else. Nowhere in Job does it tell us who the author was. When I looked it up, I found it also could have been Solomon (approx. 1,000 B.C.). . . . 3) I agree with you: it is possible that Moses and the author of Job are two different people. . . . 4) I agree with you, "That the same word used by Moses in Genesis 6:4 for 'sons' *could* be used by the author of Job in Job 1:6 to refer to angels." . . . 5) Please consider the following: "Gen 6:1-4 *sons of God.* The 'sons of God' may mean God's created, supernatural beings, who were no longer godly in character (6.3). Some commentators believe, however, that this expression refers to the 'godly line' of Seth and that 'daughters of humans' (v. 4 in the NRSV) refer to women from the line of Cain. Most likely the phrase refers to those descendants of Seth who trusted in the Lord but whose children intermarried with women descended from Cain. Those marriages were not with angels then, but between godly and ungodly human families. ANGELS NEITHER MARRY NOR ARE GIVEN IN MARRIAGE (emphasis by caps are mine) (Mt 22:30), so that this verse hardly applies to them. ... *Nephilim* are strong, violent, tyrannous men of great wickedness. It may well be that the explanation of these verses has been lost to us." (NRSV Harper Study Bible, Harold Lindsell, Ph.D., D.D., Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan, 1991) . . . Again, my intent is to clarify my position, not to PROVE that I have the one right answer. If I knew for certain who wrote Job and who the sons of God in Gen 6:4 were, would I being hanging out at the Forum on a Tuesday morning? :-) |
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