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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | world vs age | Gen 1:5 | nocompromise | 215967 | ||
i'm familiar with the strong's and understand the words used in the translation, my question is more for why was it changed ?what made the decision to change it even from the asb to nasb its been changed mainly in Matt 28:20 or any time it talks of an end to the world as to the first day or one day same question why was the change made? not how it is changed in comparison to kjv, what was the need if they can both can be used why use the one instead of first knowing it is the first?unless it's not the first excuse my puncuation or sharpness in choice in words |
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2 | world vs age | Gen 1:5 | Searcher56 | 215969 | ||
God's day to you, nocompromise, Translations change over time, even with the same version. The meanings of the words of the translated language may change or the translators may think another word may make better sense. I am not sure why. Searcher |
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3 | world vs age | Gen 1:5 | nocompromise | 215974 | ||
The new world translation Matt 28:20 replace "world" with "these things" because the beleif is that the world will not end, it is heaven.In Genesis "one day"as opposed to "first day"agrees with the gap theory that there were days prior to this "one day" that from the beginning talked about in vs1 until vs 3 that there was a space of time there which could be days as we consider time to be.so it might not be the first day but one day.Exodus 20:11 As for "perfect"turned to" adequate" ,compromise. | ||||||
4 | world vs age | Gen 1:5 | Searcher56 | 215975 | ||
nocompromise, Are you a member of the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society? I ask because you cite NWT. Searcher |
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