Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80511 | ||
Hi CDBJ I am not interested in discussing the matter as of yet but did have a question. You quoted Lk 23:43, as "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." Why would a comma be placed after "thee," instead of after "Today" ? You notice you would have two completely different meanings if it were placed after "today". Very interesting and I thank you for your time and effort. Truthfinder |
||||||
2 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | CDBJ | 80524 | ||
I am not in any position to debate diacritical marks that translators put where. Diacritical marks are the expression of a fault in a language and there weren’t any in the language of the New Testament of the Koine Greek. The dependence on syntax to bring out the fuller meaning of thought was the more excepted method when Alexander put the language together. I am afraid I can’t help you there, CDBJ |
||||||