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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Election | 1 Pet 1:2 | mark d seyler | 163837 | ||
Hi Doc, (Quoting for referrence) Romans 11:7 What then? What Israel is seeking, it has not obtained, but those who were chosen obtained it, and the rest were hardened; Doesn't this verse divide Isreal between the elect and the hardened? Why would this not include all descendants of Jacob? Since the verbs obtained and hardened are both aorist, this has happened in the past. Would this not then, according to the plainest reading of the text, mean all descendants of Jabob as of the time of writing? The alternative would be if Paul was writing in a "prophetical past tense", speaking as if future events were already past. This is not unknown in the Bible, but is there an indication of that here? Paul goes on in the chapter to write of things yet future regarding the state of Isreal in a decidedly non-prophetic way, (vs. 23) "If they abide not in unbelief". But then we must return to the words "the elect obtained it". "Obtained" is aorist active indicative. The elect is definate. (Tim would know more about this than I do, I trust he is following and will correct me if I am wrong! - Tim, are you out there?) This seems to me to be saying "all the elect have already obtained". The would be necessity not include those not yet born, and so the redeemed of Israel not yet born would be not yet elect. But then we know our names have been written in the book of life from the foundation of the world. Does this not again demonstrate that both Divine Election, and the true and unfettered free will of man are taught in the scripture? Love in Christ, Mark |
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2 | Election | 1 Pet 1:2 | Morant61 | 163839 | ||
Greetings Mark! If one looks up all of the references in Scripture that deal with 'elect' or 'election', one will see that there is a lot of assumption involved in most definitions of election. The clearest references to Election is found in Ephesians 1:4-6. Most interpret this as meaning that God choose a certain number of inividuals from eternity past and that number is set for all time. However, nothing in the text demands this view. The text can simply being saying that salvation has been preordained, not individuals. This would make more sense in light of my question about Rom. 11, where it is apparent that those who are not elect can become elect. Robert Shank argues that election refers to those who are in Christ. If you are in Christ, you are elect. Thus, the elect is not a static number chosen by God, but an evolving and changing number as individuals are reconciled to God (2 Cor. 5:18-20). By the way, you were correct about the verbs! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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