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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | is God and Jesus are one person? | Heb 1:8 | jlpangilinan | 40547 | ||
It seems that you dont understand what I am trying to say. As a matter of fact you just comment on the part that whant to commented to. To make this discussion short and simple, please answer this question. If they really equal, why Jesus Christ did not know the time of second coming: Mt 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. What happened here my friend did He forgot that time when He born human? If you said yes! please show the scripture word by word that Jesus Christ forgot that time when He born human. Can you show me the scriptures that show there are equal persons that the other co equal person did not know things that knew of the other co-eqaul person. Like the second coming, Jesus Christ said "My Father onLy" He admit that He did not know the time of second coming, what kind of equality is that anyway? Please explain with scriptures and not with your conclusions. Please answer this question with a passages support and not with your conclusion. I ask this question many time but you ignore it you did try to answer it. Try to answer this with scripture support to depend what you believed is true. I hope this time you will answers this question, it was a single question now, I hope you will not escape this time. God bless, Johnny |
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2 | is God and Jesus are one person? | Heb 1:8 | kalos | 40933 | ||
If Jesus is God, then why did He not know the time of His return? You write: "If they really equal, why Jesus Christ did not know the time of second coming:" In Matt. 24:35-36 (../kjv/Matt/matt_24.htm) Jesus said, "Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words shall not pass away. "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone. For the coming of the Son of Man will be just like the days of Noah." If Jesus is God in flesh, then shouldn't He know what the day and hour of his return would be? After all, God knows all things. Therefore, if Jesus doesn't know all things, then He cannot be God. This objection is most often raised by the Jehovah's Witnesses (../witnesses.htm) but is also echoed by the Christadelphians (../christadelphian.htm). It is a good question. Jesus was both God and man. He had two natures. He was divine and human at the same time. This teaching is known as the hypostatic union (../dictionary/dic_g-h.htm); that is, the coming-together of two natures in one person. In Heb. 2:9 (../kjv/Heb/Heb_2.htm) that Jesus was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." Also in Phil. 2:5-8 (../kjv/Phil/phil_2.htm), it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ." Col. 2:9 (../kjv/Col/col_2.htm) says, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form." Jesus was both God and man at the same time. As a man, Jesus cooperated with the limitations of being a man. That is why we have verses like Luke 2:52 (../kjv/Luke/luke_2.htm) that says "Jesus kept increasing in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." Therefore, at this point in his ministry he could say He did not know the day nor hour of His return. It is not a denial of His being God, but a confirmation of Him being man. Also, the logic that Jesus could not be God because He did not know all things works both ways. If we could find a scripture where Jesus does know all things, then that would prove that He was God, wouldn't it? He said to him the third time, "Simon, son of John, do you love Me?" Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, "Do you love Me?" And he said to Him, "Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You." Jesus *said to him, "Tend My sheep" (John 21:17 (../kjv/John/john_21.htm) - NASB). Jesus did not correct Peter and say, "Hold on Peter, I do not know all things." He let Peter continue on with his statement that Jesus knew all things. Therefore, it must be true. But, if we have a verse that says that Jesus did not know all things and another that says he did know all things, then isn't that a contradiction? No. It is not. Before Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection He said the Father alone knew the day and hour of His return. It wasn't until after Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection that omniscience is attributed to Jesus. As I said before, Jesus was cooperating with the limitations of being a man and completed His ministry on this earth. He was then glorified in His resurrection. Yet, He was still a man (cf. Col. 2:9; 1 Tim. 2:5. After Jesus' resurrection, He was able to appear and disappear at will. This is not the normal ability of a man. But, it is, apparently, the normal ability of a resurrected and glorified man. Jesus was different after the resurrection. There had been a change. He was still a man and He knew all things. For further reading please see the two natures of Jesus. (../doctrine/2natures.htm) (www.carm.org/witnesses.htm) Other websites on the Jehovah's Witnesses: Out of Darkness (http://www.outofdarkness.org/) Watchers of the Watchtower World (http://www.freeminds.org/) |
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3 | is God and Jesus are one person? | Heb 1:8 | Reformer Joe | 40965 | ||
I have a problem with the idea that omniscience was communicated to Jesus' human nature after the Resurrection. Why could we not say, then, that omnipresence was communicated to Jesus' body as well? I know that this is just a quote you posted here, but I don't think Jesus not contradicting Peter means that Jesus in his humanity now suddenly knew all things. Would that mean that we will be omniscient in our glorified state as well? --Joe! |
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