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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Tongues in different settings? | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151081 | ||
Greetings JRM! Many commentators have noted that 1 Cor. 14:22 and 23 seem to say the exact opposite of each other. :) Many suggestions have been made to explain this situation, including imagining a textual problem where there is no evidence. However, one suggestion that I have read that seemed like a strong possiblity is that v. 22 may be a rethorical question. Remember, there wasn't any punctuation in the original manuscripts. So, it was added later. If v. 22 is viewed as a rethorical question, then v. 22 would be the position of the Corinthians which Paul then responds to in v. 23. There is some textual evidence that v. 22 may be a rethorical question. This evidence can be found in Gal. 4:16, where a similar structure is used. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Tongues in different settings? | 1 Cor 14:22 | Just Read Mark | 151097 | ||
Wow, Tim. I never would have read the words like that. It makes me want to learn greek. It results in a completely different meaning to the verse --- but certainly more harmonious with the larger context. So, if the verse is a rhetorical question, does that work with the OT quote that sets it up? |
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3 | Tongues in different settings? | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151121 | ||
Greetings JRM! In this case, it is more a question of punctuation than Greek! ;-) But, learning Greek is definitely a worthwhile goal. If the previous view is correct that Paul is correcting their mis-statement, so the OT quote may have been used to illustrate that unbelievers, like Israel, would not listen to tongues. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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