Results 1 - 15 of 15
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Not yet | 151034 | ||
Scripture specifically states that "tongues edifies no-one other than the individual who speaks them." Tongues are of no benefit to an unbeliever. In fact they are of no benefit to anyone, not even the speaker, unless there is an interpreter. The unbeliever would consider it madness unless his eyes were opened by the Holy Spirit, in which case he would no longer be an unbeliever. |
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2 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151037 | ||
Hi, Not Yet... Were the people speaking in Acts 2:11 believers? In Him, Doc |
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3 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | NYP | 151042 | ||
Undoubtedly, there were those who were skeptical, both amoungst the believers and non believers, but the Apostles, in whom the Holy Spirit had manifest Himself in v4, no doubt preached with the power afore promised. The multitudes were confused, not because they heard them speaking in indiscernible tongues, but because each heard these Galileans speaking in their own tongue, (language). I would think that the mockers were the only ones who may have heard them speaking in indiscernible tongues. Keep in mind; everyone in this portion of scripture, is not speaking in "tongues;" Only the Apostles. Doc. You have been in this forum for a l o n g time. Do you put me to the test with this question? |
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4 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151064 | ||
Dear NYP, You ask, "Do you put me to the test with this question?" No, not in the sense that you might be supposing. I do not seek to test your mettle, take your measure, or quantify your acumen. I do not know what I would do with that information even if I were able to obtain it. I cannot see your life to see how it compares to your words. I do not know you. On the other hand, what I do have is your words. I have them in a better way than if we were speaking, since they do not fade as the spoken word will fade. Furthermore, our interaction allows us to take more time than we might otherwise be able to take in offering a response. In addition, our words hang here in cyber-space, where everyone can read them! (Cool, huh?) Paul tells us, "Test all things; hold fast what is good." (1 Thessalonians 5:21) So, I test your words. I test your interpretation. To that which is good, I'll hold fast to it! Perhaps you will do the same if I happen to interpret something that is tested and proven good! Now, don't be put off by questions. They are the instruments by which we fill in the gaps of our knowledge. Questions are offers to others to instruct us. They are invitations by which we honor the other person with the opportunity to edify his/her listeners. So do not fear them, NYP, but embrace them, being always ready to offer a reason for the faith that is in you! Now, those mentioned in Acts 2:11 were hearing their own languages spoken. Verse 12 says that this fact left them amazed and perplexed, asking one another "Whatever could this mean?" These do not sound like mockers to me. Now, to your points. What evidence is there that the apostles were the only ones speaking? You said that the Spirit was doing the translating? To what end? In Him, Doc |
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5 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | NYP | 151143 | ||
Dearest Brother Doc As to those “perplexed, asking one another "Whatever could this mean," I made no allusion to them being the mockers. Is it not apparent that the Spirit was doing the translating, (or, at the very least, responsible,) in that each individual heard the Apostles “Galileans,” speaking [in their own language,] “as the Spirit gave them utterance?” Immediately prior to the tongues of fire setting on each of them in the later verses of chapter 1, Matthias had just been numbered among the eleven "apostles." Considering the context of the passage, I think my assertions are both reasonable deductions. Do you not agree? Not to get off the subject, but this path of discussion puts me in mind of a statement I heard a preacher make today, concerning Romans 4:4. It seems that he interprets the verse as meaning that (the sinner who attempts justification by works, makes himself more and more guilty of sin by doing more works.) I do not see this passage as making such a statement. I can see how one might take it as stated above, if they are guilty of the “hunt and peck method” of reading scripture, but the meaning appears self explanatory when this particular verse is taken in context with those surrounding it. Forgive my ignorance, but I am just now learning that, though we read the same words, there are many who see them differently than I. This mystifies me. I have always felt that I read what I read and interpreted what I read as meaning what it said. The more I write on these boards, the more I realize “though I feel I have a very good grasp on it,” just how deficient the English language is. |
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6 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151153 | ||
Hi, NYP... Thank you for your reply. You asked, "Is it not apparent that the Spirit was doing the translating...?" To be honest, I have never heard anyone suggest this particular interpretation. I had always assumed, from Acts 2:4, that the Holy Spirit was giving the believer the ability to speak a language that they had not learned. (This was done in order to confirm the message of the Gospel, per Isaiah's prophecy... that is why it was called a "sign" (verses 19, 22, and 43).) After seeing your post, it occurred to me from Acts 2:6 that it might be as you suggest: i.e., that the Holy Spirit was causing the hearers to be able to understand the speakers as though they were hearing their native languages. Of course, a third possibility is that the Holy Spirit was doing *both* of these things. On careful consideration of the text, however, the only explicit statement of what the Holy Spirit was doing is in Acts 2:4; i.e., "giving them utterance." Consequently, I find my original impression is the most credible of the three possibilities. That written, I do believe that the Holy Spirit is always involved when the Word of God is received salvifically. One other point: You mentioned Acts 2:3, "Then there appeared to them divided tongues, as of fire, and one sat upon each of them." However, you called them "tongues of fire." Although the mental image that is conjured by a flame over each head is more romantic, it isn't exactly what the text says. I believe that little word "as" in there makes the phrase a simile. There was no fire per se, but "cloven tongues" that were flickering the way flames flicker. Kind of weird, but I think that is a more accurate reading. (Perhaps Brother Tim, if he is reading this, can verify or repudiate that understanding from the Greek.) I apologize, but I'll have to get back to your other comments another time. In Him, Doc |
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7 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | NYP | 151161 | ||
I believe they were speaking, by the Spirit, in a language (tongue) which all understood in their own language. Actually I believe it was fire. I picture tongues of fire licking upwardly. I think Jesus mentioned something along this line foretelling what they were to experience, but the passage eludes me currently. Your Brother In Christ. NYP |
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8 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151192 | ||
Dear NYP, That's interesting. Sort of like the universal tanslator on Star Trek. That would, of course, imply that the Holy Spirit is granting the gift of interpretation to non-believers. Not sure I can buy that. With regards to the flames, you're not alone. Almost everyone pictures it that way. If I'm going to mentally image something, I just want it to be as close to what the Scripture actually says as possible. After all, Luke went to the trouble of explaining it using the lanugage he did. In Him, Doc |
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9 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | NYP | 151270 | ||
Brother Doc, I didn't say that the non believers were interpreting. I said that the Holy Spirit was interpreting. After all, tongues are a sign to the non believer. 1Co 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not... How could they be a sign if they were not understood? I feel that part of the sign in this particular case was the fact that the Galileans, Apostles were understood in a language (tongue) which the hearers knew they did not speak. There is no evidence that I know of to suggest that the Apostles spoke any language other than Hebrew, or perhaps Greek. And besides "everyone heard them in their own language. Imagine an Italian and an American, both who speek only their native tongue, understanding what is being said by a Russian who speaks only his native language. |
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10 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151272 | ||
Dear NYP, The distinction escapes me... please excuse my slowness. So you mean -- following your example -- that the Russian would speak Russian; simultaneously the Italian would hear what the Russian said in Italian while the American would hear English. Does this properly reflect what you are saying? In Him, Doc |
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11 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151273 | ||
Greetings Doc! I have heard this view before. There are those who say that Acts 2 is a miracle of hearing. The apostles spoke in an unknown tongue, but everyone heard their own language. So, the Russian heard Russian, while the Roman heard Greek, while the American heard English. But, the apostles only spoke one tongue. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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12 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151274 | ||
Dear Brother Tim, Thank you for explaining. I don't believe I've ever run across this view before. (Cloistered life, perhaps?) Doesn't Acts 2:4 say that the Holy Spirit "gave them utterance?" Or does the original Greek allow the "miracle of hearing" interpretation as you have explained it? Thanks for your time, brother! In Him, Doc |
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13 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151294 | ||
Greetings Doc! The Greek would certainly allow this interpretation. V. 5 tells us that there were Jews in the crowd from every nation. V. 6 then says of the crowd, "...because each one heard them speaking in his own language." So, yes, the Holy Spirit gave the apostles the utterance, but then each one in the crowd heard their own language. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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14 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151297 | ||
Dear Brother Tim, Therefore, the Holy Spirit was doing at least one thing in that passage: "giving utterance." But it does not explicitly say that the Holy Spirit was also granting the ability to understand? (In other words, the "granting" would be an inference, rather than an explicit statement.) In Him, Doc |
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15 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151325 | ||
Greetings Doc! Correct! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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