Results 1 - 5 of 5
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151273 | ||
Greetings Doc! I have heard this view before. There are those who say that Acts 2 is a miracle of hearing. The apostles spoke in an unknown tongue, but everyone heard their own language. So, the Russian heard Russian, while the Roman heard Greek, while the American heard English. But, the apostles only spoke one tongue. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151274 | ||
Dear Brother Tim, Thank you for explaining. I don't believe I've ever run across this view before. (Cloistered life, perhaps?) Doesn't Acts 2:4 say that the Holy Spirit "gave them utterance?" Or does the original Greek allow the "miracle of hearing" interpretation as you have explained it? Thanks for your time, brother! In Him, Doc |
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3 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151294 | ||
Greetings Doc! The Greek would certainly allow this interpretation. V. 5 tells us that there were Jews in the crowd from every nation. V. 6 then says of the crowd, "...because each one heard them speaking in his own language." So, yes, the Holy Spirit gave the apostles the utterance, but then each one in the crowd heard their own language. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | DocTrinsograce | 151297 | ||
Dear Brother Tim, Therefore, the Holy Spirit was doing at least one thing in that passage: "giving utterance." But it does not explicitly say that the Holy Spirit was also granting the ability to understand? (In other words, the "granting" would be an inference, rather than an explicit statement.) In Him, Doc |
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5 | Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever | 1 Cor 14:22 | Morant61 | 151325 | ||
Greetings Doc! Correct! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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