Results 1 - 11 of 11
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | DarcyA | 97899 | ||
Tim, Your answer, is the same answer I held unto for a long time. I know it has nothing to do with water baptism, the main reason is water used that way never meant baptism. But the view of Born pysically and spiritly has a hole in it, although I held unto this belief somewhat. The hole is this what about unborn children? The Children that gets murdered everyday before they are born. I gave what I think it is in this thread. In Christ, Darcy |
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2 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | CDBJ | 97906 | ||
Hi Darcy, It seem like kind of a mute point to say that except a man be born of water, and have it mean physical birth, so that is out of the question. Only those that are born physically could hear or see what Jesus was saying anyway! Water baptism could be a possibility but the sequence is backwards. First we are born of the Spirit, then we are told to be baptized, not the other way around. Acts 8:36-37 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? 37And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. To me, it evident that, the water in none other then God’s Word. Because it is by God’s word that we believe in Jesus. Romans 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Apart from God’s Word there is nothing to have faith in, and Jesus is also called the Word of God. One becomes impregnated by God’s word before spiritual birth can take place. It is the work of the Holy Spirit through the Word of God. John 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me. Matthew 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven. James 1:21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls. The Word of God is referred to as water in Ephes, speaking of believers or the body of Christ. Ephes. 5:26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, These are some of the verses I have drawn my conclusion from, as it has been revealed to me. I think that God's Word is the water. Have a great day, CDBJ |
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3 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | Jarell | 134436 | ||
the apostles taught all through the book of acts to be baptized | ||||||
4 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | CDBJ | 135070 | ||
First I would like to apologize for being so long in answering this post but my PC died on me. When John 3:5 speaks of water, John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. I would like to propose a question; can anyone be born again apart from the understanding of God’s Word, with reference to Jesus Christ in the salvation message? Since the answer to the previous, is an obvious NO, then the water in John 3:5 by process of observation, has to be none other then the actual Word of God itself. Water is analogous to something that cleanses, as God’s Word can make one clean when personally applied to ones self by the gracious function of faith in trusting in God’s Son, Jesus. Ephes. 5:26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, The following is the same as being born again. James 1:18 (a) Of his own will begat he us with the word of truth, Have a great day, CDBJ |
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5 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | Ray | 135088 | ||
Hi CDBJ, You are making a good point about the word of God and its cleansing power with water. I see your Scriptures of Ephesians 5:26, James 1:18, and Titus 3:6 as excellent matches. But I would have the "spirit" in lower case comparing/contrasting the physical life and the spiritual birth. I, like you, see the word of God, the Scriptures, as being able to give us spiritual life. John 3:34 says, "For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God; for He gives the *spirit without measure." I see this spirit as being the word of God, the gospel message, the word of truth which received and implanted is able to save our souls. James 1:21. From the heart, Ray |
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6 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135091 | ||
The water in John 3:5 is baptism and the Spirit is the Holy Spirit. Just as Jesus when baptized of John was baptized of the water and the Spirit (the Spirit descended upon Him in the form of a Dove). | ||||||
7 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | Ray | 135128 | ||
Hi alanh, Welcome to the forum. Jesus was not baptized of the water and the Spirit., for there is a difference between the Spirit descending upon Him and baptism. John the baptist was baptizing with water in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but the Scriptures say that this One will baptize with *holy *spirit and fire. There is a difference to my mind between being baptized and having the Spirit come upon someone. The Spirit came upon Jesus in the form of a dove or as a dove would land, but Jesus was the One who baptized with holy spirit, the word of truth, the gospel message, proclaiming light and the kingdom of God. So I would say that John 3:4 is speaking about being born from above, verse 5 is talking about being born of water and spirit, and verse 6 is talking about the difference between being born of the flesh and being born of the spirit. Your thoughts are welcomed. From the heart, Ray |
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8 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135168 | ||
this One will baptize with *holy *spirit and fire. and thus He did on Pentecost and in 70CE and an obvious allusion to hell fire. To have the Spirit come upon oneself is to be baptized by the Spirit. Jesus spoke of being baptized of the water and the Spirit, but in know way said everyone must be baptized thus. Christians today are baptized by water because it is commanded in order to become a Christian and be saved (Mark 16:15-16; Mt 28:19-20; Acts 2:38; 1 Peter 3:21). According to Ephesians 4 there is only one baptism today and that is water baptism. |
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9 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | BradK | 135169 | ||
alanh, Welcome to the Forum. I notice you're advocating baptismal regeneration, but I'll leave that point for now. You say "According to Ephesians 4 there is only one baptism today and that is water baptism." My question is: Where does that leave us with 1 Cor. 12:13 which states "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit" ? Speaking the Truth in Love, BradK |
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10 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | alanh | 135267 | ||
Some allege that the baptism commissioned by Christ was not a rite in water. Rather, they contend, it is an immersion in the Holy Spirit. What are the facts regarding this matter? “How would you respond to those who make the claim that passages such as Galatians 3:27; Romans 6:3,4; Colossians 2:12; 1 Corinthians 12:13, and 1 Peter 3:21 – refer to a ‘Spirit’ baptism, rather than to ‘water’ baptism?” The baptism mentioned in Matthew 28:19 had human administrators. Christ commissioned the apostles to go and make disciples, baptizing them into the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Inasmuch as an apostle could not baptize “in the Spirit” (only Christ could do that – Mt. 3:11), one is forced to conclude that the baptism of Matthew 28:19 is water baptism, not Spirit baptism. I am unaware of any reputable Bible scholar who contends otherwise. If, then, the other passages that mention baptism (see above) are of the same import, it follows that they likewise refer to water baptism, not Spirit baptism. Both Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 make it clear that the baptism of these passages involves both an immersion in “something,” and a “being raised” from the same substance. This makes perfectly good sense if water baptism is in view. On the other hand, if the “Spirit” is the element of the baptism, this would suggest that one is buried in the Spirit, and subsequently “raised from” the Spirit. This would imply further that the new convert would not have the Spirit, and therefore, would not belong to the Lord (Rom. 8:9; Gal. 4:6). This conclusion obviously is wrong – thus demonstrating that the element of the baptism in Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:12 is not the Holy Spirit. By default, it must be water baptism. Water is specifically associated with baptism in 1 Peter 3:21. If the allusion here, then, is to water baptism, and yet 1 Peter 3:21 refers to the same sort of baptism as the other passages cited, then clearly they speak of water baptism as well. The passage that would come closest to teaching a “Spirit” baptism would be 1 Corinthians 12:13, but, the fact is, a careful analysis of related passages reveals that not even this text teaches a baptism in the Spirit. Note the following logic: The baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 puts one into the one “body,” which is the same as the “church” (Eph. 1:22-23; Col. 1:18,24). But the church is identified with the kingdom of Christ (Mt. 16:18-19). Thus, the baptism of the text under consideration introduces one into the Lord’s kingdom. However, a related passage demonstrates that it is through the birth of “water” that one enters Christ’s kingdom (Jn. 3:3-5). One is forced to conclude, therefore, that the baptism of 1 Corinthians 12:13 is water baptism. In this connection, one should also carefully study Ephesians 5:26, and note the reference to the “washing of water.” |
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11 | what does the water refer to in john 3:5 | John 3:5 | Ray | 135758 | ||
Hi alanh, You have said that Matthew 3:11 is a baptism that only Christ can do. I do not see how you can say that when we are told to baptize in the name and authority of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. Why do you want to stress water baptism as the one baptism when even John the baptist recognized that he needed to be baptised with the (h)Holy (s)Spirit and fire? I also do not agree that the "fire" of Matthew 3:11 and other Scriptures are an obvious reference to hell fire. I do not see that as obvious at all. When I think of fire I think of James speaking of the tongue and Isaiah 30:27-33 where it speaks of the breath of the Lord being a consuming fire. I see the one Spirit baptising us with the washing of the word of God. His tongue is like a consuming fire that will burn the chaff of our words. From the heart, Ray |
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