Results 1 - 3 of 3
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Homosexuality and Christianity? | Leviticus | gpaulturner | 29113 | ||
If you look up the verses in the original language you will find that there are two words which are translated as the one word "man" in English. The first word is a male "any person", like the word translated as woman, which is a female "any person". The root of the second word is something like "respect" or "memorable". The original word translated "abomination" also means "idolatry". The meaning of the verse is the contrast between having sexual relations which are not idolatrous and having them for idolatrous purposes. Augustine translates two of Paul's verses still translated without any linguistic basis as referring to gays as in fact meaning cult prostitutes in heathen temples. Sexual religious cults have always been around, in Canaan, the Roman era and will be until Christ returns. Of the three great expressive love stories in the Bible, it is the straight one which is fictional. It is an extraordinary fact of God's life in our lives that family (possibly genes or simply the family characteristic of God-like acceptance of every person) does link the other two. Ruth and Naomi were the great grandmothers of David who lived a love greater than the love of women with Jonathan. |
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2 | Homosexuality and Christianity? | Leviticus | Searcher56 | 29114 | ||
Where does it say David and Jonathan had sexual relations? If they did ... it does not make it right. | ||||||
3 | Homosexuality and Christianity? | Leviticus | Makarios | 29121 | ||
Greetings my friend, Nowhere in the Bible does it say that David and Jonathan had sexual relations of any kind. Blessings to you, Nolan |
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