Subject: What does Lo-debar mean in Hebrew? |
Bible Note: mkm9 Now you have me interested. I wonder where the Balm of Gilead started carrying the implication of a good thing? If we study the area we learn the region was known for its healing balm. Gilead was specially noted for its balm collected from “balm of Gilead” trees, and worth twice its weight in silver. Smith, W. (1997). Smith's Bible dictionary. Nashville: Thomas Nelson A very quick look at the commentators all agree that Jeremiah wasn't asking merely a rhetorical question but also making a statement that Gilead was in rebellion and therefore had no hope. There is no healing, physical or spiritual, for a people intent on rebelling against God. Radmacher, E. D. (1999). Nelson's new illustrated Bible commentary. Nashville: T. Nelson Publishers. Walking this backward we see the people were depending on the their balm to see them through. I other words the Balm of Gilead represents their self reliance. Therefore the Biblical reference to the “balm of Gilead” is as an object in which to place you self reliance Now I come back to my question I wonder how an item of self reliance is turned around to mean something good, such as Jesus the Balm of Gilead? Personally I see more as an invention of a song writer not so interested in truth but rather making the song work. I would be very careful talking about the ‘Balm of Gilead’ for those that know the 'whole' story might think your walking on the wrong side. EdB |