Subject: Jesus know all things why marvelled? |
Bible Note: Johnny -- The passages in question, one in John's Gospel and the other in Matthew's, are first of all, not related to one another in any real sense other than that they are both in the New Testament. In the passage in John, it is Peter who says to Jesus, "Lord, you know all things." thus acknowledging Christ's Deity. But the issue of the omniscience of the Incarnate Christ or of the accuracy of Peter's "you-know-all-things" observation are not really dealt with in this passage, in my view, and even if they are and I've failed to see it, they are incidental and don't constitute the main point of the passage, which I believe to be as follows: The Lord by his questions is seeking to impress upon Peter his responsibilites demanded by his love for Jesus, exemplified in His commands to feed His lambs, tend His sheep, feed His sheep...... The Matthew passage is quite different from the one in John. Jesus alone is the speaker, the subject matter is eschatology, and He, speaking as the Incarnate Christ, is saying that the Father alone knows the hour of His (Christ's) second coming...... The two passages do not present conflicting teaching regarding the question of the omniscience or kenosis of the Incarnate Christ. Kenosis is a theological word and not unlike most theological words, is extremely complex. To try to comprehend fully the mystery of God becoming flesh, being fully God and fully man, is I believe beyond the scope of the human mind. At all events, I know it is beyond the scope of the mind of the human being who is writing this posting. --Hank |