Subject: When did God change "mode" of baptism? |
Bible Note: Mommapbs, last week you asked for my comments on that website you gave to me. What raised your level of concern was their off-the-wall reference about being part of the 144,000. Good, yea, an excellent spiritual eye, even if you gave it only a “brief look see”. What “raised” my level of concern was their off-the-wall reference to “obeying” what neither Jew nor Gentiles have to anymore. They have NO understanding of the Sabbath, or its purpose. And, please don’t “misunderstand me”. To be brief (me brief? What an accomplishment), let me quote from The Jerusalem Bible Hebrews 8:13. “By speaking of a “new” covenant, He (God) implies that the first one is already old. Now anything old only gets more antiquated until in the end “it” disappears.” ”It” (the Old covenant and its rituals, etc.) did “disappear” when the temple in Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 A.D. "It" couldn’t be done away with UNTIL after Jesus’ death and resurrection, because, as it says in Heb 9, the new couldn’t take effect UNTIL Christ, our sacrifice died. That “web-site” doesn’t recognize that fact. It obviously fails to take the Book of Hebrews (the book called “the letter to the Jewish Christians”) into account, thereby failing to take 1st Tim 3:16 into account, thereby taking ALL that prophets of old, even Jesus Himself, said --- about what WOULD BE --- into account etc. etc. Thus ends my "brief" comments. :) Respectfully yours, Taleb |