Subject: When did God change "mode" of baptism? |
Bible Note: mommapbs, You are correct (sort of) that baptism was used in the Old Testament when someone wanted to "convert". And I said "sort of" because it STILL is how one "converts” to Judaism. To answer your 2nd question - yes, the physical action MADE/MAKES them a "Hebrew". Even today, when someone "converts" to Judaism they are “proclaimed” to be the son, or daughter, of Abraham and Sarah. The reason why they become “children” of Abraham is because before God called Abraham to be the father, and Sarah the mother, of the Hebrews, they both were “Gentiles”. They “became” Hebrews. NO convert IS ever called one after they "convert". They are as though they were born into it. That's why so many of them call it "being born again." Interesting, don't you think? Has the purpose of baptism changed is hard to answer. It depends if you mean has God’s purpose changed, or has “the Church’s” purpose changed. God’s remains the same. The church’s – well – we are having a conversation that we wouldn’t be having if it hadn’t changed. Your question: “if you took a white cloth and dipped it in red dye, what kind of cloth is it white or red?” instantly brought to mind one of my favorite, (from thousands) :) promises from God’s precious word “Though MY sins be as scarlet, (red, if you will) they SHALL be made white as snow.” So I guess I will have to give you a “scriptural answer”. The “cloth” God would make white. P.S. I sure appreciate you, mommapds, and you are MOST welcome. Taleb |