Subject: Was "James" used prior to KJV ? |
Bible Note: Norrie Which is worst? I don't think either is worst they are both equally evil. The problem is neither started out to accomplish what they stand accused of. The early church wasn't so interested in keeping the common man from reading the Bible as they were concerned who was going to pay to translate it and once translated pay to put it in the common man’s hand. We hear of the chained bible, it wasn’t chained to keep man from it was chained to keep it in one place. I will agree that while common man had no access to the Bible the church could interpret as they desired. However we must remember for 1500 years we had 1 church today we have 1500 denominations and each claiming they are the truth and the way. Which is right and which is better? Today we have man again concerned with money not how to pay for the cost of translating and printing but rather how to make more. Therefore we see the Bible printed in various forms in an effort to increase sales. Unfortunately anything that makes money attracts interest and secular companies have bought most Bible publishing houses. Their only concern is to make money and not alienate one part of their customer base to much in attempting to sell to another. So we see the church in an effort to preserve the word and protect it from misinterpretation became entangled in things that actually concealed it from man. Today we see Bible publishing companies trying to insure ready access to the Bible has become entangled with schemes to make more money at the cost of the truth. Interesting! EdB |