Subject: How did sin originate |
Bible Note: You stated: "In verse 17 John says that the Son was sent not to condemn the world but that the world through Him might be saved. Clearly then if ‘world’ means ‘every human being’ then the passage teaches universal salvation since the Son was sent to save the ‘world’ or ‘every human being’. If you deny universal salvation, then you have to admit the Son has failed in his mission to save "the ‘world’ or ‘every human being’ since according to the Son Himself not all human being are going to be saved. Which of the two do you prefer, New Creature? The universal salvation or the failed mission of the Son? " Concerning John 3:16-18 What is meant by the word "world" is clarified in verse 18 "This is the verdict: Light has come into the world, but men loved darkness instead because their deeds were evil. This is clearly the whole fallen world. Scripture says "When he the Holy Spirit comes, he will convict the world of guilt in regard to sin and righteousness and judgment. (John 16:8) Certain denominations theology demands that "world" and "all" don't really mean all. It is painful to watch the logic of many denominations, respond by claiming the Bible uses the words "world" and "all" in a restricted limited sense. If all does not mean all fallen human beings, then what does it mean in Romans 3:23 when it says: All have sinned. Using the logic that all doesn't mean all would then mean that in this verse the word "all" means that only all the elect have sinned, which I am sure you will disagree with. Also: How do you get around this verse? 1 John 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and NOT FOR OURS ONLY, BUT ALSO FOR [the sins of] the whole world. Finally, I don't believe that salvation is universal. It is only universal in it's offer, but is only made actual for those who by faith receive it. Neither do I believe than God ever fails or failed in any mission. It is man that fails and is held accountable for his choice which God allows him to make. |