Subject: How did sin originate |
Bible Note: You wrote: "Are you saying God is not all loving? That God shows partiality?" Of course that it is what I am saying. God shows partiality all through Scripture. God chose Abraham over every other person alive at the time. God chose Jacob and not Esau. God chose Moses (to the exclusion of everyone else) to lead His chosen people (all other nations being excluded) to the land which He had chosen for them (and they were to obliterate all of those people currently occupying the land of His chosen people). He chose judges. He chose Samuel. He chose David. He chose his prophets. He chose Mary. God the Son chose His disciples. God chose Paul. God most definitely shows partiality and bestows favor unequally on His creation. In other words, God doesn't have to limit himself to the principles of democracy, sine he is the King. It is only wrong to say that He chose all of those people because they deserved to be chosen. You wrote: "God was longsuffering and patient with the ungodly in the days of Noah. Noah was a preacher of righteousness. The peoples hearts became hardened. But God gave them 120 years to repent under the preaching of Noah to repent, and they did not. God is not at fault here for the failure of men." Where do you see that God was being patient toward the world in the days of Noah? It is very clear from Genesis 3 that He purposed to destroy every single human being besides the eight he saved. If you are referring to God's patience in 1 Peter 3:20, that patience in unleashing His wrath was for the sake of Noah, who was building the ark, NOT for those He was planning on destroying. Go read the verse again. As for 1 Peter 3:9, the Calvinist understanding of that verse within the context of the entire epistle has been posted here ad nauseam. Do a search for it. "Why didn't he choose the whole world instead of on particular people group out of all the nations in the world to be the recipients of His covenant and His favor? My Answer: The recipients of God's favor are those who by grace through faith receive the gift of salvation which is freely offered. The OT saints received and embraced Christ through faith the same as NT saints. God's way of salvation has not changed over the years. Abraham was saved by faith, and we too are saved by exercising faith in Christ." I don't disagree with how OT saints were saved, but that doesn't address my point at all. Salvation before Pentecost was limited almost exclusively to the nation of Israel. It was Israel who received the Law of Moses, it was Israel who was God's covenant people, it was the system of sacrifices and ceremonies given to the Israelites which prefigured the Messiah. Nowhere do we see in the Old Testament where the Israelites were commanded to spread the "good news of Yahweh" to convert the pagan nations. The oracles of God were given to Israel alone (Romans 3:1-2), and Jesus Himself said that salvation is from the Jews (John 4:22). It is quite obvious that God established His testimony with Jacob (Psalm 78:5) and that Israel was God's chosen people above all others until the ministry of the apostles began. You wrote: "Why did God tell the Israelites to completely blot out everyone who lived in Canaan rather than to evangelize them? Answer: The various reasons for this is probably because God in His foreknowledge, and omniscience knew that the heathen people would not be receptive to the gospel." Where is your Scripture to support this? You are begging the question by saying that your view is supported by your view. --Joe! |