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NASB | 1 Corinthians 15:28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 15:28 However, when all things are subjected to Him (Christ), then the Son Himself will also be subjected to the One (the Father) who put all things under Him, so that God may be all in all [manifesting His glory without any opposition, the supreme indwelling and controlling factor of life]. |
Subject: How can the Son at the end be subject be |
Bible Note: I have done extensive research, prayer, study, you name it, and I know the concepts of "persons", "trinity" etc are not Biblical. Now, I understand the old argument of just because these are words not found in the Bible, it doesn't make them false. But I'm arguing the concepts behind the terms/words. The majority of why the doctrine came into existence is because of how Jesus distinguished Himself from The Father and the Holy Spirit. The trinity is a wrong conclusion of what this distinction means, for it is a distinction between the manifestations of the one God, who has revealed Himself to us as Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Just because the Son spoke as a man speaks, and referred to God as "God", and by the personal pronouns of "He" etc, does not mean to run away with the idea that Him and the Father are distinct persons. The Father was in the flesh, but He was not the flesh. The Father was in the Son, but He is not the Son. There lies the distinction. So Jesus, as fully man, walked our walk, but He also talked our talk. At times, He spoke as God (eg saying He is the I AM), and we're quick to rightly say "see, He's God". But when He spoke of God like a man (eg when He said don't call me good, for there's only One that is good, and that is God), trinitarians are not so quick to say "see, He's a man," but rather "see, He's the second person speaking to the first person". There's a lot more to it, but I'll keep it at that. God bless. |