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NASB | 1 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, called as an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and Sosthenes our brother, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, called as an apostle (special messenger, personally chosen representative) of Jesus Christ by the will of God, and our brother Sosthenes, |
Subject: Women Preachers? Yes or No? |
Bible Note: glory2, I fear you have made this a personal issue and/or chosen not to respond to my point. In the meantime you insinuated that I like to argue, do not do what Jesus commands, and use my energy for theological debate. Thanks for the vote of confidence. Moving on, I will respond as briefly as possible. Dealing first with the passage in Galatians let me just say; It is my belief that this passage is not at all disregarding the individuality of persons (God saves individuals not groups). Nor is it disregarding the distinct differences between races and nationalities; nor the distinct differences and roles/expectations of males and females. Instead, it is declaring the work of faith; that faith is not resistant to race, ethnicity, nationality, male, or female. I pray that you will consider the passage further and discern this for yourself. Regarding your thoughts on the 1Timothy passage I have some comments as well. You wrote: "In this passage the word "woman" in the greek ..(Look it up for your self) also means "wife" and in context it is saying ...do not usurp your husbands authority." Lets look closer friend. A closer look always requires the consideration of context. We start with your assumption that the proper translation for the Greek word "gune" found in this passage is "wife". How did you arrive at that? It's true that the word "can" be translated "wife". But it also can be translated "woman" and "women". Since it is obvious that neither of us are Greek scholars, how do we handle this? A first approach might be to look at how the true scholars have translated the word. In every bible translation I referred to (eight in all) the scholars translated the word to "woman" and "women". Never "wife". Why do you think they did that? Might I suggest "context". In other words, are the unmarried women in the church of 1Tim. liberated from the rest of the commands in this passage? Are they at liberty to adorn themselves in a way that is not modest; or to present boastfully proud and intoxicated while sporting themselves in broided hair, gold, pearls and other costly array? With this question in mind, it becomes much less likely that the passage was/is speaking to married women only. Am I absolutely sure of this? No. but the context certainly makes it more likely. It also rules out the possibility that you are absolutely right. Whick, I might add, is the very reason this very issue (and passage) has been debated for decades to include on this forum. I hope I was more to the point and less offensive. More importantly, I hope we have demonstrated how responsible debate can contribute to serious bible study. An important position to take is to never declare what the Scriptures don't; and never take a position that is or appears to be in opposition to the Scriptures as they are plainly presented. God bless, Jeff |