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NASB | Romans 9:15 For He says to Moses, "I WILL HAVE MERCY ON WHOM I HAVE MERCY, AND I WILL HAVE COMPASSION ON WHOM I HAVE COMPASSION." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 9:15 For He says to Moses, "I WILL HAVE MERCY ON WHOMEVER I HAVE MERCY, AND I WILL HAVE COMPASSION ON WHOMEVER I HAVE COMPASSION." [Ex 33:19] |
Subject: Mercy Essential? |
Bible Note: Greetings Lionstrong! No insult taken my friend! However, my position is logical. Here's why: Rom. 11:32 says that it is God's purpose to have mercy on all. However, it never says that all will be saved. There is a difference. Under the system of Arminianism, the offer of salvation is available to all (hence Rom. 11:32), but one must respond to God's mercy in order to be saved. See, Calvinism assumes a limited atonement. If all are not saved, then obviously it was not God's intention to save all. Arminianism assumes an unlimited atonement. Thus, it is God's intention that all be saved, but they have to respond to the offer. Calvinism would make sense, expect for all the verses that clearly say it is God' desire to save all, to have mercy on all, ect.... Concerning "may" in Rom. 11:32, the verb "have mercy" is an Aorist, Active, Subjunctive. The subjuntive mood refers to potential action that has not taken place yet (conditional in other words). The only way to translate that in English is to use "may or might". However, the presence of "may or might" does not indicate doubt, only that the action hasn't occured yet or has yet to occur at the time of the first clause. So, in Rom. 11:32, God had not yet expressed His mercy on all when He consigned them to disobedience. However, that was His purpose and would take place as soon as the conditions were met. To use an English example, it would be like me writting in the future to describe your posts on this thread. I could say, "Lionstrong wrote that he might convince me of the logic of his position." The "might" simply indicates a purpose that you have in mind after you complete the writting. This is the case with Rom. 11:32. "May" is not in the text, but is inserted to indicate a purpose of God that, at the time of the first clause, had not taken place yet. The fact still remains that the verse plainly says it was God's purpose to have mercy on all. God could have said, if that is what He meant, that it was His purpose to have mercy on just the elect. Thanks for your interaction! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |