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NASB | Romans 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Romans 1:19 because that which is known about God is evident within them [in their inner consciousness], for God made it evident to them. |
Subject: What does "being a homosexual" mean? |
Bible Note: "For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot." You write: "I have a problem with the statement "it is not possible for a homosexual to carry out God's will". I did not mean that no homosexual could ever carry out God's will. What I meant was no [currently] active homosexual (one who habitually performs homosexual acts) is carrying out God's will. Habitual sin is not God's will. If and when a homosexual stops commiting homosexual sin, then it becomes *possible* for him to do the will of God. ------------------------------ First, we know that a sinner cannot do the will of God. Romans 8:6-8 (ESV) To set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace. [7] For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God's law; indeed, it cannot. [8] Those who are in the flesh cannot please God. Second, as long as a person continues to practice homosexual sin, then they are NOT doing the will of God. 1 John 3:8-10 (ESV) Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. [9] No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. [10] By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. The teachings of Moses (the Law) condemn and prohibit homosexual sin. The Bible calls homosexual sin an abomination -- a pretty strong word. Moreover, the Law DEFINES homosexual activity as sin. Since sin is the transgression of the Law and Jesus came to fulfill (not abolish) the Law, then how could he condone the breaking of the very Law that he came to fulfill? Grace to you, Radioman2 |