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NASB | John 6:56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood abides in Me, and I in him. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 6:56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood [believes in Me, accepts Me as Savior] remains in Me, and I [in the same way remain] in him. |
Bible Question:
Hi Sharp! Let me start with me response, then I'll deal with your question. 1) Response If I understand your response to my question correctly, you are saying that Jesus was praying to Himself because He was operating at that moment as a man and not as God. Let me know if I have missed the boat! My problem with that interpretation is this: Yes, Jesus was fully man, but He was also fully God. What I mean is this. The fullness of the Godhead was always as much a part of His nature as was His humanity. There was never a time when Jesus was not aware of who He was (the 2nd person of the Godhead.) Jesus even says to Philip, "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?" (John 14:9). Clearly, Jesus is fully aware of His Divinity as well as His humanity. Therefore, when Jesus says that He will pray to the Father, I believe He is really praying to someone. Also, when He says that He will pray for another Comforter, I believe that there really is another Comforter. Therefore, I don't think that you can explain this verse away by appealing to His humanity. What do you think? 2) Answer. I'm not sure I understand where you are going with this line of questioning. Usually, this is a tact taken by those trying to disprove the Deity of Christ. Can you clarify where you are going? In the meantime, let me address this passage. There is one thing that we know about Christ, there never was a time when He did not exist. He is fully God (Col. 2:9, John 1:1) and as such has always existed. So, whatever Heb. 1:6 is refering to it is not refering to a point in time when Christ came into existence. However, the incarnation is not the normal state of Christ. This seems to be what Heb. 1:6 is refering to. On the day that Christ was born of the virgin Mary, He became the Son of God (a status change). This is a name that is superior to the angels and unique to Christ (Phil. 2:9-11). Two other passages (Acts 13:33 and Rom. 1:3-4) even go further and specify that it was the resurrection which declares the Jesus is the Son of God. So, my answer to your question is this: At His birth and resurrection, Jesus was declared the Son of God. However, there never was a time when Christ, the Second Person of the Trinity did not exist. God Bless, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Hi Tim, I completely believe the Diety of Christ, you seem to be confusing something that you have read or heard with my response. There were several trinity doctrines developed in the early centuries of the church. To stay with scripture they have to return and say there is one God. I have said Jesus Christ was humanity and diety. The Diety of Christ was the eternal, almighty God, John chapter one says he was in the world and the world was made by him. Revelations says he is the almighty. Is he or is he only part? I find it humorous that when someone is willing to believe the oneness of God others confuse it with errors that have arisen in the past.The development of the trinity doctrine can be traced and has been from both views and I have read from both. Eph.4:6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. yes or no? sharp |