Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | John 1:14 ¶ And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 1:14 ¶ And the Word (Christ) became flesh, and lived among us; and we [actually] saw His glory, glory as belongs to the [One and] only begotten Son of the Father, [the Son who is truly unique, the only One of His kind, who is] full of grace and truth (absolutely free of deception). [Is 40:5] |
Bible Question:
Greatings Tim, thanks for your time. Yes I am muslim. I am right now not in agreement that Jesus is God, maybe you could clarify: John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Okay, then let me ask about this verse. If the "Word" is Jesus, then is this the translation: John 1:1 In the beginning was the Jesus, and the Jesus was with God, and the Jesus was God. How can Jesus be WITH God, if he IS God? God was with God? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Isa! Again, I just read Nolan's post and he did and excellent job of pointing out other passages that demonstrate that Jesus is fully God. In one of my previous posts, I include others. However, allow me to deal with your specific question about John 1:1. John is a Gospel. This is stating the obvious, but it is useful to remember why he was writing this book. His reason for writing was given in his own words, "But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name." (John 20:31) Therefore, John is trying to convince his audience, both Jews and Gentiles, that Jesus is God and that He alone is the source of salvation. With this in mind, John opens his Gospel with a prologue (1:1-18) which appeals to the current thoughts and ideas of both Jews and Gentiles. Jews at this time had personified the "Word" of God to a new level of meaning - it was God’s creative power. Greeks had a philosophical concept of the "Word" as the creative, rational force from which all things spring. Thus, John creatively says things about Jesus (notice that he doesn’t tell us that the ‘Word’ is Jesus until v. 14) that would appeal to the religious and philosophical views of both Jews and Gentiles. William Temple describes John 1:1-14 in this way. The Logos, he says, "alike for Jew and Gentile represents the ruling fact of the universe, and represents that fact as the self-expression of God. The Jew will remember that ‘by the Word of the Lord were the heavens made’; the Greek will think of the rational principle of which all natural laws are particular expressions. Both will agree that this Logos is the starting point of all thing." However, John’s purpose is to take them beyond this point and demonstrate that Jesus Himself is both the ‘Logos’ and God. Thus, throughout John escalates the statements made about the Word. Each one revealing more about the true identity and nature of Jesus. 1) In the beginning was the Word - v. 1: The Word was eternally existent. He did not come into being at any particular point in time. He has always been. 2) The Word was with God - v. 1: Not only is the Word pre-existent, but the Word is in an intimate face to face relationship with God. 3) The Word was God - v. 1: Not only is the Word pre-existent, not only is the Word in an intimate face to face relationship with God, the Word is God. 4) The Word is the Creator of all things - v. 3. 5) The Word is the source of life and light for all men - v. 4. 6) The Word was not recognized by the World - v. 10. 7) The Word was not received by His own creation - v. 11. 8) The Word makes those who do receive Him Sons of God - vv. 12-13. 9) The Word is Jesus, God incarnate - v. 14. Thus, there are two answers to your question about how the Word can be with God and God. a) The statements simply escalate our knowledge of Jesus. There is not necessarily any significance to be made to His being both with and being. John is simply bringing people along slowly to a higher understanding of who Jesus is. b) The statements make complete sense in the context of the Trinity. Most Christians believe that within the One Godhead, there are three distinct Persons (Father, Son, and Holy Ghost.) If this is the case (which I believe it is), then the Word can both be with and be God at the same time. Additional notes: I read one of the Muslim web sites which tries to deny that Jesus is God, and they made two arguments with which you might try to respond. So allow me to address them briefly. 1) ‘Theos’ is also used in Scripture to refer to Satan. Therefore, it must not be capitalized in John 1:1. The simple fact is that ‘theos’ is the Greek word for ‘god’. The context alone determines whether the passage is speaking of the true God or a false God. Depending on the context, it can be capitalized or not. John 1:1 should definitely be capitalized. John 1:1 is referring to the God who created all things, not a false god or idol. 2) The last phrase should be translated "The Word was divine." This is a very simple argument to counter for anyone who has any Greek training at all. The simple fact is that when a predicate nominative is used to rename an articular subject, the article is not used. So it is absolutely correct to say "The Word was God" without including an article before the word God. This should be translated "The Word was God" not "The Word was divine", nor "The Word was a god." So my friend, you will not be able to demonstrate from the Bible that Jesus is not God. In Christ, Tim Moran |