Subject: Questions I'm trying to answer |
Bible Note: Dear Brother Mark, The following is not intended as criticism of you. I've just tried to study it through. It is interesting that Chuck Missler makes this assertion about the "hidden message." Unfortunately, he leaves us none the wiser as to the authority by which he makes some of the "translations." He even deals with the natural objections by dismissing the use of a "conventional lexicon." (Although he does not tell us where we might find an unconventional one.) Let me give an example of Missler's definitions, of Lamech he says "Methuselah's son was named Lamech, a root still evident today in our own English word, lament or lamentation. Lamech suggests despairing." Our English word does not come from Hebrew. Furthermore, the Hebrew words for lament, moan, weep, cry, complain, etc. aren't even remotely close to "Lamech." I find Chuck Missler often quoted in connection with this "hidden message" theory, but there is a marked absence of ancient Hebrew language authorities. I think I'll stick with Dr. James Strong, who spent a lifetime devoted to the study of the languages of the Bible. I'm afraid, Brother Mark, that Missler appears to have obtained this "hidden message" from somewhere else. (His wording is repeated all over the net, even when they don't cite him as the author.) Where was it that you found this mentioned from over a thousand years ago? In Him, Doc PS If you like, I can make inquiries of a good friend of mine. He is a national expert on ancient Biblical languages. |