Results 81 - 100 of 280
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: Scribe Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
81 | can a women preach and teach men | 1 Tim 2:12 | Scribe | 85700 | ||
Part 1 of 2 This is a good question, and one that often divides the saints. I do not think that Paul is saying a woman is never called by God to teach the Word. This is not the spirit of this instruction in 1 Tim 2:12. The context does not say anything about keeping silent in religious assemblies as the amplified squeezed in. There is such a verse and I will list it below. However this verse is about an attitude of a woman usurping authoritiy over a man. Many have interpreted this as Preaching or Teaching the Bible. That if a woman teaches the Bible she is usurping authority over a man. I do not see that in this text, nor do I believe if a woman teaches me a bible lesson is she usurping authority over me (a man). Maybe if you are raised believing such things you may have some such feeling of intimidation but I don't believe it is coming from the scripture. Now on the other hand I have seen many women usurping authority over men, their husbands most often, and scolding them and teaching them as if he is one of her children, and doing it publicly which is a very unbecoming thing for a christian woman to do, but many do it, out of habit and because it is part of the flesh patterns of the woman to do so. It is as necessary today as it was in Pauls day to tell the woman not to teach or usurp authority over the man. Now if a woman is ministering in the church and she comes across authoritative over men and tries to scold them, then the same truth applies and she should quit. That does not mean women cannot speak or teach in the church. Remember we have to get all the verses on these things to see the whole picture. I know that there are many who are going to be opposed to what I am saying, but I challenge you to examine the verses I give and carefully submit a better answer to them than I am giving. We know that Paul was inspired and that what he wrote was the Word of God and we know that the word of God does not contradict itself. So let us look at another often used scripture where Paul speaks of women being silent in the church 1 Corinthians 14:33-35 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints. Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church. This is often used in addition to the verse in 1 Tim to try and interpretn 1 Tim 2:12 That that they are saying the same thing. I think they are different. This verse in 1 cor 14:33 does not mean a woman cannot talk in church. I don’t know of any church anywhere among the main evangelical denominations that tell the women to stop talking when they step through the doors of a church. But who among us believe in letting women or men ask questions aloud in the middle of a Pastor’s sermon disrupting the Pastor and bringing a spirit of contention in the service? This is what the women were said to be doing, (though I am not sure any of us know for sure). This confusion is the same kind of confusion Paul was preaching against throughout 1 Cor 14 when he mentions the speaking in tongues without and interpreter or the prophesying out of order, in both thost cases he says let him (not her but it applies to both) keep silent in the church. He used the same terminology in the same chapter speaking of taking a more submitted role and not trying to take over the service with your tongues, prophesy, or questions so that all are listening to you but not being edified by it. He makes it clear that the tongue could be given but only with an interpreter so that all may be edified, and even then in an orderly manner and not too many, and he makes it clear that prophesy can be given but by two or three and in an orderly manner, and so when he gets to the women, it is the same thing, not that they should never be allowed to teach which is a gross paraphrase and commentary and an inaccurate interpretation of what he said, but that they should not ask questions aloud causing confusion. (continued on next post) |
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82 | Don't be deceived | Gen 2:9 | Scribe | 85676 | ||
In my opinion, this verse prooves to me that Satan was perfect in Eden, and then fell. Ezekiel 28:13 Thou hast been in Eden the garden of God; every precious stone was thy covering, the sardius, topaz, and the diamond, the beryl, the onyx, and the jasper, the sapphire, the emerald, and the carbuncle, and gold: the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou wast created. Ezekiel 28:14 Thou art the anointed cherub that covereth; and I have set thee so: thou wast upon the holy mountain of God; thou hast walked up and down in the midst of the stones of fire. Ezekiel 28:15 Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, till iniquity was found in thee. Ezekiel 28:16 By the multitude of thy merchandise they have filled the midst of thee with violence, and thou hast sinned: therefore I will cast thee as profane out of the mountain of God: and I will destroy thee, O covering cherub, from the midst of the stones of fire. There are those that say that this Eden was not the garden but some other heavenly Eden. And so they reconcile this verse with the idea of a past rebellion before the garden of Eden. Maybe that is so, but I do not read of any such Eden in the scripture, so it is just speculation. Unless someone has hints of it in the scripture somewhere that I have never seen. Untill I hear of a heavenly Eden in the scriptures I have to take it as a reference to the Garden of Eden and a Divinely inspired prophecy concerning satan in that garden before he fell. This would put his fall in the garden and also explain the reference to the mount of God. We do not really know that Eden was near the current Tigris and Euphrates junction before entering into the Persian Gulf. That never made sense to me. The river flowed out of the Garden and parted into four. We keep hearing that the Garde was somewhere in Iraq where the Euphrates and Tigris join. That is oposite the facts. The River flowed out of the Garden and divided into four, not joined into one. So the garden must have been somewhere further North or west from Iraq and the Tigris and Euphrates joining again is inconsequential. Unless we are saying that the river flowed from the gulf norhtward, and that is not that way it works is it? So what am I getting at? It is possible the Jewish tradition that that Adam was formed in the same area of the temple mount is true. It is possible that Jerusalem is the location of the garden of eden, in which case this reference to satan wanting to ascend the sides of the north coincides with the antichrist standing in the holy place in the end times. Something to think about. We often repeat what we were taught (Satan fell eons before the garden in some ancient rebellion) without ever investigating where the teaching comes from. Then when we do we do not find any supporting scriptures except for the garden story. Then we have a choice, keep spouting the party line, or ask the Lord to give us faith and boldness to speak only what the word says and nothing more. And even then we must always allow room for more light not being dogmatic about things that are not clear in scripture. Despite what the "reformers" might say, there are many truths in the scriptures that have not been fully explored and one of the reason is that many are afraid to depart from any preconcieved interpretations even when they feel the check in their spirit that there are not any scriptures to back such an interpretation, or they begin to see a more clear picture than the ancient medieval church and yet they are afraid to add anything to it, being taught that all doctrines have been exhausted and there is nothing new to add. May God Bless You in you Study of His Word. |
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83 | she brought forth her children? | Is 66:12 | Scribe | 85615 | ||
Isaiah 66:12 For thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will extend peace to her like a river, and the glory of the Gentiles like a flowing stream: then shall ye suck, ye shall be borne upon her sides, and be dandled upon her knees. You ask good questions. This whole chapter is one to meditate on often. It is an example of the type of passages in the prophets that are the foundation for the scriptures in the New Testament. This prophecy is all about the conversion of the Gentiles through the Man Child that would be born in Israel, the relationship of Jerusalem to the church, both in it’s origins and it’s heritage, and the coming of judgment upon those that rejected the Lord, with the glorification of the church before their eyes. This chapter covers big picture thinking concerning the plan of God from the birth of Christ, the beginning of the church which came about as it were in a day with Pentecost and the future creation of a new heaven and earth. The beginning of the chapter is all about how that God is not pleased with the legal works of the Jew but is seeking the humble repentant heart of faith instead, and will accept such a heart whether found in Jew or Gentile. This is one of my favorite chapters in the whole Bible if I could bring myself to find a favorite. Every time I hear a preacher go on and on about his new satellite dish that is going to save the world or some new building program that will save the city, I think about this verse, and I want to tell the man about it. Isaiah 66:1-2 Thus saith the LORD, The heaven is my throne, and the earth is my footstool: where is the house that ye build unto me? (where is the church building that you would build big enough to house my glory?) and where is the place of my rest? (Where is the satellite advanced enough to take the place of the Holy Spirit in the heart of men?) For all those things hath mine hand made, and all those things have been, (We have had TV, and Radio, and Buildings and other ideas for many decades, but that is not God’s method and never has been) saith the LORD: but to this man will I look, even to him that is poor and of a contrite spirit, and trembleth at my word. (God’s method is a man, broken and repentant, emptied of self, and filled with the Holy Spirit.) This is how we will turn our world upside down like they did in Acts, without technology or expensive buildings. |
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84 | the name of Judas Iscariot's father? | Ruth 1:1 | Scribe | 85608 | ||
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85 | No, the dead are still DEAD...not alive! | Bible general Archive 1 | Scribe | 85472 | ||
Mark 12:26-27 And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err. Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men. 1 Peter 3:18-19 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 2 Kings 2:11 And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven. Mark 9:4 And there appeared unto them Elias with Moses: and they were talking with Jesus. Seems to me that Elijah was taken to heaven and appears on the Mount which means all that time he has been conscious. Where are the saint of old now? The legal requirments were met in Christ and they ascended up with Him. |
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86 | How can I know GOD? | NT general Archive 1 | Scribe | 85471 | ||
Dewey, it is this simple. God is Holy and perfect. Man has sinned, God cannot just overlook our sins, so God sent His only Son Jesus Christ to take the punishment for sin that we all deserve. The punishment for sin is death. Jesus died for you. But Jesus being sinless did not stay dead. Death had no legal right over Jesus becuase he had never sinned. So Jesus rose from the Dead three days later. Jesus is Alive right now. God (who cannot lie) promises us that we can be born again in our spirit and know God. As "New Creature" has posted scriptures, there are many such promises in the Bible. These are not just words in a book. They are the words of God who cannot lie. You are required to take the first step of faith and believe that God mean what he said. He said if anyone will come to him he will not cast him out. Anyone. Are you an anyone? Then you qualify. Just pray something like this. "Lord I believe in you and your Son Jesus Christ. I am sincerely sorry for my sins, and ask you to forgive me of all unrighteousness. I know I do not deserve your mercy but I know that you cannot lie and that you sent your Son to pay the price for me so that I could be saved. Lord I give you my life and will live for you with my whole heart the rest of my life." If you pray something like that, (and the wording is not important, but the heart of faith and repentance is what God accepts), then you are promised to have eternal life and know God. May God bless you daily as you read the Bible and grow daily in His image. The next step is to find a local church in your area and asked to be baptized in water as an act of faith in what Christ has done for you. |
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87 | Am I once and forever saved? | John 3:16 | Scribe | 85366 | ||
There is no fear in love. 1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. He that feareth is not made perfect in love. The context of this passage is all about fellowship with God in Christ. If you are born again, you never have to be born again, again. If you are loving the Lord He will be faithful to mature you and keep you until the final day. Philippians 1:6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ: There are many verses that promise you that God will see you through, no man can take you from his hand. The controversy about this topic is usually over the fate of a backslider who goes back to the world and sinful living, and stays there. There are some that will say that even he is still saved, but most do not agree and think that if you stay backslidden you have no hope of going to heaven. It is really not that important of an argument becuase those that love the Lord and have tasted of the Joy of the Lord find that sin is so miserable they cannot stay in it and are always breaking down in heart felt repentance, and the Lord always is faithful to forgive and give them power to overcome sin. So the man who is born of God will not stay is sin or will be found saying.."I can't sin.." I just can't do this anymore.. I will return to my Father..and tell him I am not worth to be his son.. make me one of your servants... " And God is always there to embrace the repentant man and clean him up and change him. The error comes when someone trys to use God's Love as an excuse to sin, which is something we were warned about would happen in the last days.. Jude 1:4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ. |
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88 | why did soldier | John 18:5 | Scribe | 85364 | ||
John 18:5-6 They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground. Remember that Jesus had previously made these statments... John 8:58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. and ...John 10:17-18 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. And also in this same context of the soldiers coming to arrest him.. is when Jesus said this in another place... Matthew 26:52-53 Then said Jesus unto him, Put up again thy sword into his place: for all they that take the sword shall perish with the sword. Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels? So when he says I AM HE, it is a declaration that He is the I AM that spoke to Moses from the Buring bush, the I AM that was before Abraham, and the that these soldiers had no power to arrest him. He was willing letting them take him. But so that no man could ever say that his words about being able to call down angels if he wanted to were empty words, he says I AM HE and they all fall to the ground. He had the power to do more than that if He wanted to. Prais God he laid doen His life for us, so that he might take it up again. We are saved today because of this and thankfuly serve Him every moment. |
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89 | what will happen to us? | 1 Cor 15:51 | Scribe | 85360 | ||
1 Corinthians 15:51 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, They do not die. A heart atack would be death. They do not see death or sleep. They are instantly changed from a normal mortal body to an immortal one. It is a miracle. No natural death occurs. |
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90 | Would they had of believed? | Mark 15:34 | Scribe | 85356 | ||
Mark 15:31 Likewise also the chief priests mocking said among themselves with the scribes, He saved others; himself he cannot save. Mark 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Notice that In this passage Jesus says My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? And much has been said about this, "did the Father really forsake him.. etc" But I believe that Jesus was declaring by this, not that the Father had forsaken him but that he was in the midst of the psalm that starts with these words. Psalms 22:1 My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? ...7 All they that see me laugh me to scorn: they shoot out the lip, they shake the head, saying, He trusted on the LORD that he would deliver him: let him deliver him, seeing he delighted in him....16 For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet.....18 They part my garments among them, and cast lots upon my vesture. You see all that was spoken of a suffering messiah in Psalms 22 was being fulfilled right before their eyes. Even their mocking words were prophesied. Now you would think that there was at least one religious leader among them that had enough knowledge of the word to notice the similiarities between what he was witnessing and Psalms 22, especially when they cast lots for his clothes. And so that their would be no doubt that all this was mere coincidence we have Jesus Crying out the words My God My God why has thou forsaken me. Would they have acted differently if he came off the cross? Why would they if, their very mocking words were recorded centuries in advance, and they were to blind to see it? Would they stop being blind if he came down? Well we know the answer. Not only would they be no different if he came down then, they did not change after over 500 witnesses testified to his resurrection. No wicked men will be blind because they are wicked. Blindness comes upon a man because of his rejection of truth and that rejection and rebellion is not interested in what is true, but only what allows them to continue in their sins unopposed. But there is coming a day when all the haughty tongue waggers will be stopped and this is the day Enoch prophesied of when he said. "Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints, To execute judgment upon all, and to convince all that are ungodly among them of all their ungodly deeds which they have ungodly committed, and of all their hard speeches which ungodly sinners have spoken against him." |
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91 | Jesus' name baptism? | Acts 2:38 | Scribe | 85331 | ||
Isn't it amazing how much controversy can be stirred up over such a simple topic. I have browsed through some of the posts, and I am sure I am repeating some of them with my response. It seems to me that most of the posts I have read have completely missed the main argument that should be presented when this question arises. The whole controversy began in the early 1900s due to the misunderstanding of the phrase “In the Name of”. We use it often in common speech when we refer to the doing something by the authority of. We are all familiar with the command “open up in the name of the Law” from old TV shows or other popular cultural references. But it goes back further than that, and I am not going to present all the history of its origins but it has always been used to refer to “what authority you are doing something in, or Who gave you that authority.” When we say we Baptize in the Name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, we are saying it is The Divine Godhead that has given us this authority. When we say we Baptize in the Name of Jesus, we are stating that Jesus has given us the commandment to Go and Baptize people. The words are not what make you “In the Name of” What I mean is that if you are not born again and saved by faith and living pleasing to God, you have no authority to baptize another believer. However those of us that are believers and particularly those that are called to do so, are sent to Baptize in the Authority of Christ, or In the Authority of God. Now when some well meaning but ignorant and uneducated preachers say “In the Name of” as though it is some spell or incantation they cast with words, then this is why this type of foolish hairsplitting takes place. There is no difference between saying I am sent by the authority of God or to say I am sent by the Authority of Christ except to give emphasis to the Divinity of Jesus. Whether you say you are given authority to baptize by the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, or whether you say you are Given Authority to Baptize by Jesus Christ, is all the same to a New Testament believer. To emphasize what words you use when you speak at a baptism as constituting what is defined as “the name of” rather than by what authority you do what you do, and who gave you this authority shows you to be an ignoramus with less than a high school education. I do not say that mean spirited. I am saying that is exactly how one appears to the well read that would observe a man emphasizing the phrase “in the name of “ as something other than “in the authority of”. Then you might have your formula of words just the way you want it, but your converts will all be of the poor ignorant masses like you because the intelligent will think you are a loony tune. It is amazing to me that a whole denomination has sprung up around what words to use at a baptism, but what is NOT surprising to me is that there is not one scholar among them. The very foundation is based on error in grammar. The argument ceases to exist as soon as you learn what “in the name of” means in New testament usage. Look through the New Testament at all the times In the Name Jesus is used, on almost every occasion, the idea has nothing to do with speaking words, but rather by what authority a believer does things in. Also it is good to read about the origins of this Jesus Name Only movement and how it began. May God Bless You as You Study His Word |
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92 | Why did Satan want Moses bones? | Jude 1:9 | Scribe | 85228 | ||
Jude 1:9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee. I am assuming you are speaking of this passage in Jude. This is an amazing passage and full of doctrinal truth. First of all you will not find this account in the Old Testament. There are several views about where Jude could have gotten this. I believe that the answer is that it was a tradition among the Jews. There were traditions among the Jews that were full of error and yet they were based on true history. I think Paul referes to the tradition of Jannes and Jambres as true. 2 tim 3:18 I do not believe Jude was quoting from apocryphal material but that more likely the apocryphal material was written later to make up stories based on Judes references here. So if Jude is the word of God and we are sure that it is, what is the point here and what does it suggest? I think we can compare this verse with many others and get a better picture. I am not going to take the time to write the whole subject at this time but I will summarize. Moses died, and God buried him. No man knows where to this day. Moses body might have been taken to heaven. If so Satan would have opposed the legality of such a thing. It is satan’s legal right to cause death to reign and for the body of men to see corruption, rot after death. Remember Peter said in Acts 2 that David was prophesying of Jesus when he said.. Thou wilt not suffer thy holy one to see corruption. Satan accused God of being unjust in not allowing Moses body to be corrupted like all others. There is something significant to the kingdom of hell to see death have its complete sway on man even unto the rotting of the flesh in the grave. The angel said the Lord Rebuke thee. Because God did indeed satisfy the legal requirements of His own justice but satan did not know how yet. If I treated this subject fairly It would be several pages long. Satan is the accuser, his power is not like in the movies, he does not have power to just kill you outright, he gains power to bring destruction on a man through accusations. The spiritual warfare is more like a heavenly courtroom than a pitched battle of angels with cosmic swords. You have several scenes into this realm in the bible. Though this one concerning Moses is not in the OT the one where Satan accuses Joshua is (Zech) and there satan accuses Joshua because of sin, and the angel says The Lord Rebuke thee, is not this a brand plucked from the fire. Thus again there was a reason why God could use Joshua though he had been guilty of sin. We know that this is because Jesus would come and die and rise again and declare believers justified, that God might be just and the justifier of him that believeth in Jesus. So God did not violate His own holiness and justice by allowing Joshua access to the administrations of the priesthood, though satan used that argument. And I think the contention over the body of moses has to be similar. There was some legal argument satan presented over why he should have access to the body and it was denied him. Now Moses body represented the church in the wilderness just as Jesus body represents the whole church. To bring this to a conclusion we have another fight between satan and Michael in Revelation and there again satan is defeated, and cast down. Revelation 12:5 And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne. Revelation 12:7-8 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels, And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven. Revelation 12:11 And they overcame him by the blood of the Lamb, and by the word of their testimony; and they loved not their lives unto the death. The saints are seen as involved in the fight, or that the fight is over them. See here satan is contending with Michael over the fact that the manchild is caught up. This manchild is not just Jesus, but the Church, the manifestation of the sons of God, the redemption of the purchased possession, our bodies being glorified, and us rising.. that is what satan is arguing against. Satan is accusing the body of Christ that is rising to meet the Lord in the air as not having the right to escape death.. And the angle says the Lord Rebuke thee.. Only this time we have the complete reason why.. Because of the Blood of the Lamb and The word of their testimony. I do not content for this interpretation since it belongs in the realm speculation, but it works best for me at this time and better than most commentaries I have read thus far. |
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93 | Why did Satan want Moses bones? | Jude 1:9 | Scribe | 85213 | ||
Jude 1:9 Yet Michael the archangel, when contending with the devil he disputed about the body of Moses, durst not bring against him a railing accusation, but said, The Lord rebuke thee. I am assuming you are speaking of this passage in Jude. This is an amazing passage and full of doctrinal truth. First of all you will not find this account in the Old Testament. There are several views about where Jude could have gotten this. I believe that the answer is that it was a tradition among the Jews. There were traditions among the Jews that were full of error and yet they were based on true history. I think Paul referes to the tradition of Jannes and Jambres as true. 2 tim 3:18 I do not believe Jude was quoting from apocryphal material but that more likely the apocryphal material was written later to make up stories based on Judes references here. So if Jude is the word of God and we are sure that it is, what is the point here and what does it suggest? I think we can compare this verse with many others and get a better picture. I am not going to take the time to write the whole subject at this time but I will summarize. Moses died, and God buried him. No man knows where to this day. Moses body might have been taken to heaven. If so Satan would have opposed the legality of such a thing. It is satan’s legal right to cause death to reign and for the body of men to see corruption, rot after death. Remember Peter said in Acts 2 that David was prophesying of Jesus when he said.. Thou wilt not suffer thy holy one to see corruption. Satan accused God of being unjust in not allowing Moses body to be corrupted like all others. There is something significant to the kingdom of hell to see death have its complete sway on man even unto the rotting of the flesh in the grave. The angel said the Lord Rebuke thee. Because God did indeed satisfy the legal requirements of His own justice but satan did not know how yet. If I treated this subject fairly It would be several pages long. Satan is the accuser, his power is not like in the movies, he does not have power to just kill you outright, he gains power to bring destruction on a man through accusations. The spiritual warfare is more like a heavenly courtroom than a pitched battle of angels with cosmic swords. You have several scenes into this realm in the bible. Though this one concerning Moses is not in the OT the one where Satan accuses Joshua is (Zech) and there satan accuses Joshua because of sin, and the angel says The Lord Rebuke thee, is not this a brand plucked from the fire. Thus again there was a reason why God could use Joshua though he had been guilty of sin. We know that this is because Jesus would come and die and rise again and declare believers justified, that God might be just and the justifier of him that believeth in Jesus. So God did not violate His own holiness and justice by allowing Joshua access to the administrations of the priesthood, though satan used that argument. And I think the contention over the body of moses has to be similar. There was some legal argument satan presented over why he should have access to the body and it was denied him. Now Moses body represented the church in the wilderness just as Jesus body represents the whole church. To bring this to a conclusion we have another fight between satan and Michael in Revelation and there again satan is defeated, and cast down. Revelation 12:5 And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne. Revelation 12:7-8 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels, And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven. Revelation 12:11 And they overcame him by the blood of the Lamb, and by the word of their testimony; and they loved not their lives unto the death. The saints are seen as involved in the fight, or that the fight is over them. See here satan is contending with Michael over the fact that the manchild is caught up. This manchild is not just Jesus, but the Church, the manifestation of the sons of God, the redemption of the purchased possession, our bodies being glorified, and us rising.. that is what satan is arguing against. Satan is accusing the body of Christ that is rising to meet the Lord in the air as not having the right to escape death.. And the angle says the Lord Rebuke thee.. Only this time we have the complete reason why.. Because of the Blood of the Lamb and The word of their testimony. I do not content for this interpretation since it belongs in the realm speculation, but it works best for me at this time and better than most commentaries I have read thus far. |
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94 | no interpretation allowed | 2 Pet 1:20 | Scribe | 85197 | ||
2 Peter 1:19-21 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. There are actually several common interpretations of this very passage. Ironic isn't it? I believe the correct one is understood by the following verse, the prophets (who wrote scripture) were not at liberty to add their own ideas, but only what the Holy Spirit gave them to write. Therefore the scriptures can be relied upon to be the verbally inspired inerrant word of God. |
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95 | What is "Hope"? | 2 Corinthians | Scribe | 85108 | ||
Acts 2:26-27 Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope: Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. Acts 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust. Romans 5:2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God. I understand that often you will hear preaching and messages about hope as it relates to this life's necessities. I do not think that was the doctrine of this thing that is called Faith Hope and Love. The Hope that Paul is preaching about is a doctrinal Hope in the Eternal promises that are yet to come. We have hope for them becuase we Believe we have been given them by faith, but as yet we do not see our bodies glorified and resurrected, but we have hope for it, not a hope like "I hope is will happen but no one knows for sure" But a Hope because we know it will happen it is only a matter of time. And so we can get through all trials in this life, including lack of any particular creature comfort, not becuase we Hope we get a new car, but becuase we Hope for a better world, and a better resurrection. Our Hope is to precious to associate with these temporal things. Our Hope far transcends these temporal things and make them less than nothing. May God Bless You as you study His Word. |
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96 | Please explain Isaiah 40:5-6 | Is 40:5 | Scribe | 85099 | ||
Isaiah 40:4-8 Every valley shall be exalted, and every mountain and hill shall be made low: and the crooked shall be made straight, and the rough places plain: And the glory of the LORD shall be revealed, and all flesh shall see it together: for the mouth of the LORD hath spoken it. The voice said, Cry. And he said, What shall I cry? All flesh is grass, and all the goodliness thereof is as the flower of the field: The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: because the spirit of the LORD bloweth upon it: surely the people is grass. The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever. This passage is a doctrinal foundational passage. There are many doctrines established in the passage. We are most familiar with the Gospels applying verse 4 to the ministry of John the Baptist. There is more to verse 4 than that but in order for me to squeeze an answer into the character limitation of the post I will simply mention that vs 4 tells us that that verse 5 is at least about the coming of Jesus Christ, when John states in John 1 that they beheld his Glory, he was referring to this very promise here in Is being fulfilled in Jesus. Now not only did they behold his glory in the spiritual sense of His message and deeds, but they actually beheld a manifestation of the Glory of God that will again appear when Jesus comes again the 2nd time in His Glory, they saw it when they were with Him on the mount. Jesus told them some of them would not see death until they saw the Son of God come with Power and Glory, and 6 days later some of them (peter, james and John) were with Him on the mount and He was transfigured before them and shone like the sun. Later Peter mentions this in his epistles and says he witnessed the Power and Coming of the Son of God when he was with Him in the mount, (that is how we know that is what Jesus meant when he said some of you will see the power and coming of the Son of God) Peter goes on to say that we all will partake of that very same Glory when Christ comes again. Therefore Peter understood that these OT prophecies were about the Glory that will follow when Jesus comes again a second time and we who have Christ in us will be transfigured and shine as well. All over the earth the believers that are waiting His appearing will shine like like the stars as they are changed in a twinkling, and they will rise and meet the Lord in the Air. This is what I believe about the rapture. It will not be a disappearing in a twinkling, that is not what the scripture says.. but a changing, and a rising, we only disappear after we have risen from view. All flesh will see the Glory of the Lord manifested in us. They will also see the Glory of the Lord when Christ Comes at the end of the tribulation. |
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97 | Christians? | James 1:22 | Scribe | 85090 | ||
James 1:22 But be ye doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving your own selves. Matthew 7:26 And every one that heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them not, shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand: Matthew 7:22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? I think that we often hear people call something salvation that isnt. What is "accepting Jesus as your saviour?" I do not think you will find the terminology or anything close to it in the New Testament. It almost sounds like we reluctantly say.. ok God I will give you a chance.. I will accept you. Oh no, my brethren, this is far from the salvation that the Bible teaches. It is us that need acceptance. The cry of the heart of a saved man is not.."I will accept you now... I think I am ready for something better... " But rather. OH Dear Lord, Please Accept me, though I am not worthy or the least of your mercies!" This is the prayer that God will hear and this is the person that will rise up justified, and begin to bring forth fruit worthy of repentance. The enlightened soul can barely look up toward heaven in shame at the condition of his soul. Luke 18:13 And the publican, standing afar off, would not lift up so much as his eyes unto heaven, but smote upon his breast, saying, God be merciful to me a sinner. Luke 18:14 I tell you, this man went down to his house justified. No it is He that accepts us and we are glad, we are so glad we do not want to be found in sin again but seek to please Him and do His word. This is the saved man. What if you see a man that “accepted” Jesus by signing a prayer card at the church alter. But he makes no attempt to please the Lord, or shows no gratitude in daily life for salvation. What is he saved from? If ceases not from daily sins of the old life, then how can we call it saved. The very word has it’s original New Testament usage in this verse. Matthew 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. If they are not showing any change they are not saved from their sins. Then they are still in darkness and not yet translated into the kingdom of light. |
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98 | What is the purpose of the anointing? | Bible general Archive 1 | Scribe | 85066 | ||
(Part 2 of 2) We are not anointed in one message about the resurrection and not anointed in another message about the genealogies. We are anointed by the Holy Spirit as a result of our salvation and call. The gifts and callings of God are without repentance. We will be anointed to preach the gospel when we go to sleep tonight, and anointed when we wake up. The anointing abides with us. You might feel joy when you contemplate the glories of the world to come, but it is not because you are now anointed, and before you weren't. Truly brethren we are either anointed or we aren't. Called or not. Saved or not. Now we are filled with the Holy Spirit and called and anointed. And we will remain so. The truth that we are anointed is the same as saying we go "in the name of Jesus Christ" We preach in his name because we are anointed. We baptize in His Name because it is He that gives us the authority to baptize because we are anointed by the Holy Spirit to do so. I may not feel very well today as I type this, I may not feel any desire to leap about and shout as some men do, nevertheless I am anointed, the anointing abides in me, and is not subject to my bodily infirmities. There are times that we may be filled with the Holy Spirit in the sense that our inner man is strengthened and emboldened and our faith made strong and we receive power to witness and do ministry that is empowered by the Holy Spirit and not by our own ambitions, and these times are extra ordinary, more than the normal infillings of the Spirit of God to do service. As we see in Acts when Peter must make a confession before his accusers, it says that Peter... being filled with the Holy Ghost... spake, not as though he did not have the Holy Spirit before, but there are times when the Lord gives us an outpouring of His Spirit when we need it to do His will. I do not call this the anointing though such an association is common in today's church, and technically it may include the fact that we are anointed. I call it "being filled with the Holy Spirit." The danger of calling feelings "the anointing" is that you will see all sorts of fleshly demonstrations being called the anointing. I fear God when I hear such things and cringe to hear it. I would be careful not to use the term anointing as it relates to being filled with the Holy Spirit for service unless you are preaching Jesus Christ. We know that the Holy Spirit testifies of Jesus Christ, that it brings to remembrance the word of God, but we do not want to accuse the Holy Spirit of doing some of the things we see demonstrated in services today. I heard a preacher speaking about a particular non-canonical story about simon the man who was compelled to carry the cross, the story is not considered authentic by most and never was taken very serious, more likely a spurious story that once circulated as many such stories sprang up in the ages preceding Christ. The preacher in teaching this extra biblical record, said he felt the anointing coming upon him. This is the kind of error that associating the "anointing" with feelings produces. What if the story is not even true, as most agree, then he is stating that God is confirming the extra biblical doubtful record and accusing God of confirming a lie. It is dangerous for us to presumptuously say that this is the Holy Spirit. That is what is meant when someone says.. I am being anointed to teach this. If it is the Holy Spirit, He will testify of Jesus and confirm the Word of God not the traditional stories or other such doubtful records. I have gone on long enough. I hope this has been helpful and confirmed in you what many already suspected concerning the modern use of the world anointing. May God Bless You as You Study His Word. |
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99 | What is the purpose of the anointing? | Bible general Archive 1 | Scribe | 85064 | ||
Maybe we should start with what it is not. (Part 1 of 2) The anointing is NOT... when you get a chill down your spine. The anointing is NOT... the volume of your voice when you preach, neither is it the gyrating and shaking of your body in a convulsive manner as if electric jolts have been administered to you with an unseen stun gun. The anointing is NOT... a mystical invisible cloud that floats around in the congregation, a forth person of the godhead, whose job it is to make people hoop and holler with laughter when it brushes by them. The anointing is NOT about a feeling, that sometimes you have when you are preaching something exceptionally enlightening from the scriptures and other times has left you on your own if you are having to suffer through a teaching on New Testament culture at the time of Christ on the various pottery produced to assist your audience in archaeological digs in and about the city of Bethlehem. If we look at the New Testament meaning of this word, (assuming that the use of the word in the New Testament will give insight into the shadow meaning of any oils and anointing in the priestly service) we find these scriptures to be somewhat cornerstones of doctrinal truths concerning the idea of Holy Spirit anointing. Luke 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, Acts 10:38 How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him. Hebrews 1:9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. 2 Corinthians 1:21-22 Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God; Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts. 1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. These all tell us that the Anointing that we speak of when we speak of a preacher being Anointed is that of a call and an equipping by God through the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit does not leave the preacher, (or saint for we are all called to be anointed) the anointed abides with us John says. It does not come and go. (part 2 continued on next post) |
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100 | Searching for the truth | Gen 9:11 | Scribe | 85047 | ||
As stated in the previous post concerning the rainbow. The promise is that God will not destroy every living thing with one judgement. That is not what happens when the earth is destroyed. The people of earth suffer great judgements of billions under the judgements in revelation. But they do not all get wiped out by anyone particular one or even all of them combined. The earth does not just vaporize one day while people are running about being wicked. The judgments of Revelation are poured out, but many remain alive. They enter into the final judgement after the 1000 year reign with Christ on the earth. After the final destinies of all men are settled and the wicked are removed leaving only those with eternal life does the earth get dissolved. | ||||||
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