Results 421 - 422 of 422
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Results from: Answers On or After: Thu 12/31/70 Author: jlhetrick Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
421 | please explain uncomely Icorth7vs36 | 1 Cor 7:36 | jlhetrick | 146667 | ||
Take vs 36 in context with the chapter and discussion. vs 1 of this chapter says "it's good for a man not to touch a woman." vs 2 "but because sexual immorality is so rampant, every man should have his own wife..." (International Standard Version). The rest of the chapter leading up to vs 36 clearly talks about pro's and con's of marriage and repeatedly makes reference to sexual issues. the bible, especially the new testement repetedly makes reference to the "sins of the flesh" and sexual immorality being high up on the list in terms of temptation and acting in sin. "uncomely" in this verse is obviously referring to the man beginning to "act out" on his sexual temptation toward the "virgin" as described in the AMPLIFIED translation "not acting properly toard..." The verse is specifically setting the standard that sexual "playfullness" and behavior toward someone you are not married to is improper (therefore sinful). To continue with this type of behavior is to continue to sin. The only way to be "justified" or "right" in this behavior is that the other person be your spouse. therefore, fefrain from such behavior, or, marry her and be justified before God. |
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422 | Is sex marriage? Premarital Sex: Sin? | 1 Cor 7:36 | jlhetrick | 146664 | ||
I am new to the forum and didn't see the previous answer to your question so I hope I'm not just throwing the same thing back at you. It sounds like you have read what Paul had to say in 1 Co 7:36. You ask for a deep answer, but why? If the answer is simple and easily accessible what motivates you to want to complicate it. Perhaps you are trying to justify your own behavior or lifestyle (not judging just asking you to explore this). I still haven't offered a answer. I could offer many scriptural references and make it "deeper" but the bible is clear. It is clear from the context that 1 Co 7:36 is referring to sexual temptation of a man to a woman who is not his wife. It is also very plain that if you are unable to keep yourself under control and resist the temptation, you should marry the girl if you intend to go forward into a sexual relationship. there is no need to make it a deeper issue when the answer is given specifically. As for whether having sex with one person constitutes marriage (if I understood the question) that's an easy "NO" Marriage is clearly represented in both old and new testements as involving a "certificate" something written and of a legal nature and "ceremony" which speaks to the public announcement before man and God. Read Matt. 19:9. Now if a man "divorces his wife" in order to "marry another" then divorce must include some action as does the remarrying. This verse makes it clear that the "divorcing" is not simply constituted by adultry, or moving on to another sexual relationship, which would have to be the case if "sex is marriage". If this were the case then the process or concept of divorce would not be possible or necessary after the spouse had comitted "sexual imorality". because by having done so (committing sexual imorality) the divorce would have been effectually produced or completed. |
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