Results 21 - 40 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | Thank you, now in modern day how is it t | Genesis | Morant61 | 238843 | ||
Greetings Aworth35! Welcome to the study forum! I think part of the problem with this thread is the wording of the question. You originally asked when Adam 'acquired' a soul, but Scripture never says that Adam acquired a soul. It says he became a living soul. Gen 2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. (KJV) So, man doesn't have a soul. He is a soul. Further, there was never a time when Adam wasn't a living soul, because he became a living soul at the moment of creation. When I was in theology class, our professor taught that human beings are created with a spiritual component and a physical component. It is this combination that makes us living souls. This combination is also our intended state of existence since at the resurrection the dead will have their physical and spiritual components reunited again. Scripture never gives us a complete definition of what soul means, but the word itself is used in a variety of ways. It sometimes seems to refer to the more spiritual side of our nature. At other times, it seems to be used to refer to the totality of our physical nature. Either way, Adam was never any different than any of us in regards to a soul. He was always a living soul, and so are we. I hope this helps! For a nice article, look up 'got questions soul' on Google. Thanks! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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22 | Creation- it was good vs. it was so. | Genesis | Morant61 | 238459 | ||
Greetings! I will try to answer your questions! :-) 1) Were Adam and Eve good? I believe that Gen. 1:31 applies to everything mentioned as being created in Genesis 1 since the verses says, "God saw ALL that He had made, and it was very good...". This would explain the stylistic change in the statement. 2) According to the commentary by Keil and Delitzsch, the separation of the waters on day 2 is not completed until day 3, which is way the statement, "And, God saw that it was good" is not found until Gen. 1:10. This phrase covers the events of the 2nd day, and part of the events of the 3rd day. The remainder of the events of the 3rd day are called good in Gen. 1:12. Man was created innocent, not perfect. As you mentioned, Adam and Eve had the ability to disobey God's commands, which they did. But, they were not created sinners. They were created good. 3) While it is true that Gen. 3 does not use the word 'sin' to describe that Eve did, her actions definitely fit the definition of sin as a transgression of God's law. In fact, Rom. 5:14 and 1 Tim. 2:14 both use the word sin to describe the actions of Adam and Eve in the garden. So, sin was a possibility for Adam and Eve, but did not become a reality for them until they choose to disobey God's command. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran 3) |
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23 | What source is it | Exodus | Morant61 | 238373 | ||
Greetings Alex! Sorry that I was not able to respond to your question sooner. My son just got married and I have been swamped. I saw Doc's response to you and would certainly concur with him. According to the four source documentary theory, the Pentateuch is the work of a least four different authors, writing at four different times. This theory is very popular among those who hold a very low view of Scripture and is based almost entirely on supposed differences of vocabulary and point of view. For instance, supposedly the author of J uses the term Yaweh, while the author of E uses the term Elohim. Why exactly couldn't the same author use both? Personally, I put no stock into this theory at all. Have a great day! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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24 | can this conclusion be found in scriptur | Gen 4:7 | Morant61 | 237932 | ||
Greetings! I'm sorry! I thought you were talking about the conclusion of Gen. 4:7. I looked back on the thread and saw that you were referring to what Doc had said! Doc's statement is never directly stated in Scripture but it it the only possible logical conclusion. Only two people were created according to Scripture. Therefore, their sons must have married sisters or nieces. Later, it could have been cousins! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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25 | can this conclusion be found in scriptur | Gen 4:7 | Morant61 | 237931 | ||
Yes! Genesis 4:7! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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26 | Understanding the Greek word Porneia | Matt 5:32 | Morant61 | 237916 | ||
Thanks for the kind words, Ed! If you get the chance, try to find the books I mentioned. I think you will really enjoy them. They are worth having in your library. It would be great if we could actually meet one of these days! I have enjoyed my friendships with so many on this forum over the years. I certainly count you as a friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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27 | Understanding the Greek word Porneia | Matt 5:32 | Morant61 | 237902 | ||
Greetings Ed! I have been working a lot lately, so I haven't had a chance to respond to your post. First of all, whose write up is this? It would be helpful to know who wrote this. Secondly, I would disagree with the writer for several reasons. 1) This is an overly restrictive definition of porneia. The word, while it can refer to incest, usually refers to sexual immorality in general. 2) The context of Matthew 19 makes it clear that His disciples understood Jesus to be speaking of marriage in general, not just illegal marriages since they retort, 'it is better not to marry' v. 10. The traditional understanding seems to fit the context much better. Marriage was intended to be forever, but because of sin, circumstances arise that can and do break that union. In fact, the divorce decree was actually meant to protect the woman and her reputation in cases where the husband had decided to divorce without moral grounds. It was God's way of letting the world know that the wife was without fault in the matter and should not be considered an adulteress if she remarried. And excellent resource on this topic is a couple of books by Spiros Zodhiates on divorce and remarriage. He brings out some great details on these passages. Your Brother n Christ, Tim Moran |
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28 | Can Christians live a sinless life? | Rom 1:1 | Morant61 | 237755 | ||
Greetings! There are many different views on this subject! I happen to be a part of the Church of the Nazarene and we believe in entire sanctification. There are several keys to understanding this topic (at least from my perspective): 1) No one can live a sinless life apart from Christ! Therefore, your point about not needing Jesus to die for us would not be valid. A victorious life is only possible because Christ died for us. :-) 2) There is a difference between what is possible and what is actual. Those who believe in the possibility of living without sin recognize that sin is still possible. There is a sense in which this whole topic is a matter of semantics, but there is an important distinction that needs to be made. Do we really believe that Christ has dealt with sin? Consider the following verses: Rom. 6:2, 6:6-7, 6:12, 6:22, 8:9, Gal. 5:16. How I understand these verses is that there has been a real change in our nature once the Holy Spirit comes to dwell within us. Sin is no longer our master. Now, we have a choice. As long as we are led by the Spirit, we will not sin. But, as soon as we cease being led by the Spirit, we can and will sin. So, is sinlessness possible? Yes! Is it likely? Not really? But, we should make every effort to be led by the Spirit and live holy lives, and not use our humanity as an excuse to sin. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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29 | Mark 7:19. Confusion | Mark 7:19 | Morant61 | 237754 | ||
Greetings Ed! Good answer! In this particular case, the phrase actually is in the Greek text. It has been put into parentheses to separate it from Jesus' words. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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30 | Mark 7:19. Confusion | Mark 7:19 | Morant61 | 237753 | ||
Greetings Bubblehead! The Greek text of Mark 7:19 ends with the following phrase: 'making clean all meat' the transliterated text would be: 'katharizwn panta ta bromata' This phrase is viewed as an explanatory comment added by the author and not a continuation of the quote by Jesus. The NASB translates this phrase as 'Thus He declared all foods clean', but literally it simply says 'making all meat clean.' I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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31 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 237716 | ||
Greetings FytRobert! As a pastor, I would like to tackle this question. It is only proper (and legal) for a pastor to receive gifts or donations if those funds were designated by the giver for that purpose or if the governing body of the congregation has designated those funds for that purpose. A pastor cannot simply take money from an offering. But, if that money has been designated for that purpose, then if would ethical to receive it. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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32 | SEEKING FOR THE TRUTH | Hebrews | Morant61 | 237714 | ||
Greetings FytRobert! Read Hebrews 7-10! This passage of Scripture explains that we are now under a new covenant and that the old requirements of the Law are no longer in force. This is why we no longer offer up burnt offerings - they are no longer needed. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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33 | Who is that deceiving spirit? | 2 Chr 18:21 | Morant61 | 237712 | ||
Greetings! In his commentary, Albert Barnes suggests that this entire vision is meant as a parable, not as a record of an historical event. The context of the passage suggest that he is correct. For instance, we know that God does not lie. Secondly, the angel in the account is supposed to succeed in deceiving the King, yet here Micaiah is telling the King God's whole plan and ruining the lie. Therefore, it seems more likely that the vision was meant to let the king know that his false prophets were lying to him and allow him the opportunity to listen to the truth. Unfortunately, the king still would not listen. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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34 | Promises from God | Ex 20:12 | Morant61 | 237615 | ||
Greetings Ed! Well said, my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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35 | expecting for kind answer. | Gen 49:27 | Morant61 | 237605 | ||
Greetings! This prophecy most likely refers to the future military prowess of the tribe of Benjamin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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36 | expecting for kind answer. | Gen 46:34 | Morant61 | 237603 | ||
Greetings! Gen. 46:34 provides the answer to this question. Shepherds were detested by the Egyptians and forced to live away from the rest of the Egyptians in Goshen. This also served the added purpose of keeping the people of Israel separate from the Egyptians, thus allowing them to retain their culture and faith. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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37 | expecting for kind answer. | Gen 49:11 | Morant61 | 237601 | ||
Greetings! The whole prophecy here just seems to indicate that Judah would be financially blessed with lifestock and crops. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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38 | expecting for kind answer. | Ex 4:24 | Morant61 | 237599 | ||
Greetings! No one knows for sure, but it seems likely from this passage that God was angry with Moses for not circumcising his son, probably because his wife did not want him to do so. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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39 | expecting for kind answer. | Ex 12:8 | Morant61 | 237597 | ||
Greetings! Like the question about Leaven, this was another direct command of God and served to remind the people of Israel of their hurried flight from Egypt. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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40 | expecting for kind answer. | Ex 12:14 | Morant61 | 237595 | ||
Greetings! Not to be a smart-alex, but the answer is because God said not to! ;-) The Passover feast was meant as a memorial for the flight from Egypt. By not using leaven, the people of Israel were reminding of the haste with which they left Egypt. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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