Results 41 - 60 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
41 | expecting for kind answer. | Ex 22:4 | Morant61 | 237593 | ||
Greetings! Scripture does not tell us why, but the double restitution was most likely meant as a punishment for theft and as a disincentive to theft. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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42 | expecting for kind answer. | Ex 28:42 | Morant61 | 237591 | ||
Greetings! This was an issue of modesty. To put it into today's language, God was telling them that when they served in the temple that they needed to wear underwear. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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43 | expecting for kind answer. | Judg 8:1 | Morant61 | 237589 | ||
Greetings! The Ephraimites were offended that Gideon did not ask them to help out in his battle. Their pride was offended. When Gideon complimented their accomplishments, their wounded pride was healed. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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44 | expecting for kind answer. | 2 Sam 15:8 | Morant61 | 237587 | ||
Greetings! Absalom went to Hebron because he promised that he would - See 2 Sam. 15:8. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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45 | expecting for kind answer. | Jer 15:10 | Morant61 | 237585 | ||
Greetings! Jeremiah isn't discussing the relative merits or disadvantages of loaning or borrowing money. He is simply alluding to the fact that when money is loaned or borrowed, relationships tend to sour. Since he had done neither, he is asking why the people were upset with him. Of course, the answer is that as a prophet, he was calling the people to repentance, and they didn't like it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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46 | expecting for kind answer. | Num 35:2 | Morant61 | 237583 | ||
Greetings! Actually, the Lord commanded the Israelites to provide the Levites with land - see Num. 35:2 Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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47 | expecting for kind answer. | 1 Sam 20:30 | Morant61 | 237581 | ||
Greetings! No, David and Jonathan were not homosexual. If you read the entire chapter, you will notice that Saul was planning on killing David, and Jonathan was helping him escape. This is why Saul was angry with Jonathan. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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48 | expecting for kind answer. | Gen 38:7 | Morant61 | 237579 | ||
Greetings! Scripture does not specifically say of what wickedness Er was guilty, but it must have been something significant to deserve immediate death. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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49 | Documentation Request | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 237537 | ||
Greetings Rstrats! I was reviewing one of the articles that Doc provided for you, and it did indeed include historical references to the practice of counting any part of a day as a full day. The article says, " While to the 21st-century reader these statements may initially appear to contradict one another, in reality, they harmonize perfectly if one understands the different, and sometimes more liberal, methods ancients often used when reckoning time. In the first century, any part of a day could be computed for the whole day and the night following it (cf. Lightfoot, 1979, pp. 210-211). The Jerusalem Talmud quotes rabbi Eleazar ben Azariah, who lived around A.D. 100, as saying: “A day and night are an Onah [‘a portion of time’] and the portion of an Onah is as the whole of it” (from Jerusalem Talmud: Shabbath ix. 3, as quoted in Hoehner, 1974, pp. 248-249, bracketed comment in orig.). Azariah indicated that a portion of a 24-hour period could be considered the same “as the whole of it.” Thus, as awkward as it may sound to an American living in the 21st century, a person in ancient times could legitimately speak of something occurring “on the third day,” “after three days,” or after “three days and three nights,” yet still be referring to the same exact day." Source: http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/570 This article also lists several great examples of this practice from Scripture. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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50 | What doesIsaiah 49:16 means? | Is 49:16 | Morant61 | 236941 | ||
Greetings Ken! No one is sure what kind of mark the Lord is alluding to in this verse. Several suggestions have been made. 1) It could have been some sort of puncture in the hands to indicate zeal for the temple. There is evidence that pilgrims to Jerusalem did something like this to indicate their love for the temple. 2) It could refer to some sort of drawing on the hand to indicate something that one does not want to forget. It would be similar to us writing a phone number on our hands. 3) It could have referred to blueprints for the temple. Either way, the message is clear - the Lord has not forgotten His people - see vv. 14-15. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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51 | Where is what happens to my soul | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 236926 | ||
Greetings Doc! Thanks for the link! This message is an excellent introduction to this topic. One point made that I really appreciated is that man is a multi layered being. When I was in graduate school, we used Milliard Erickson's, "Systematic Theology." He used the term 'composite unity' to describe man. Many Christians do not realize that it is not God's plan for us to exist as disembodied spirits, but that our entire being (physical and spiritual) will eventually be saved from the effects of sin. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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52 | was King Saul and apostle Paul the same | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 236874 | ||
Greetings Berty! No, they were not the same person. Paul, who was named Saul before he became a Christian, lived early in the first century. He probably died about 64 a.d. Saul was King of Israel about 1,000 b.c.. So King Saul died about a 1,000 years before Paul was born. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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53 | what do the seven seals indicate? | Revelation | Morant61 | 236767 | ||
Great answer Ed! I might add one thought. The idea seems to be that the scroll was partially rolled a bit, then sealed. The scroll was then rolled a bit more, and sealed. Thus, the opening of each seal allowed a bit more of the scroll to be read. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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54 | Getting into heaven | NT general | Morant61 | 236766 | ||
Greetings MeeMeeSue! The short answer is 'No'! Why? First of all, Scripture makes it clear that we are all born sinners. For instance: Psa 51:5 Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me. Rom 3:23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, Rom 3:10 As it is written: "There is no one righteous, not even one; Scripture also makes it clear that salvation cannot be earned by works or by obeying the Law: Eph 2:8-9 For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith--and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God-- (9) not by works, so that no one can boast. Gal 2:16 know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified. Salvation is obtained in only one way: Rom 10:13 for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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55 | tithing in the new testiment | 2 Cor 9:7 | Morant61 | 236762 | ||
Greetings Kshack! Tithing is mentioned in the New Testament, but it is never commanded of Christians. Giving, however, is commanded of Christians. Tithing is a good way to give in an organized and thoughtful manner, but should never be done in a legalistic manner. See 2 Cor. 9:7 Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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56 | what is mean of the verse | Eph 6:1 | Morant61 | 236652 | ||
Greetings You! Bruce Metzger's, "A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament" says this about this verse: (Note: I had to remove Greek letters and special symbols that cannot be viewed on this site) "The words 'in lord) are absent from several early manuscripts and patristic quotations (B D G it Marcion Clement Tertullian Cyprian Ambrosiaster). It is difficult to to decide whether they were added by copyists who recollected 5.22 and or Col. 3:20 (...) or were deleted from several witnesses in order to prevent the reader from supposing that the writer intended to limit or qualify the duty of obedience (rather than merely to characterize the spirit in which the obedience is rendered). The longer text was preferred on the basis of (a) preponderance of external evidence, and (b) the likelihood that if the phrase had been inserted from 5.22 it would been..., or if from Col. 3.20 it would have stood after 'dikaion'. Nevertheless, in orer to reflect the weight of the witnesses that lace 'in lord', a majority of the Committee voted to enclose the words within square brackets." The Net Bible says of this verse: tc - B D F G as well as a few versional and patristic representatives lack "in the Lord" (...), while the phrase is well represented in ...0278 0285 33 1739 1881 .... Scribes may have thought that the phrase could be regarded a qualifier on the kind of parents a child should obey (viz., only Christian parents), and would thus be tempted to delete the phrase to counter such an interpretation. It is unlikely that the phrase would have been added, since the form used to express such sentiment in this Haustafel is (ho to kurio/Christo, "as to the Lord/Christ"; see Eph 5:22; Eph 6:5). Even though the witnesses for the omission are impressive, it is more likely that the phrase was deleted than added by scribal activity." I hope these help! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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57 | what is rededication meen in the bible | NT general | Morant61 | 236612 | ||
Greetings Ray! Rededication is not a term that is found in Scriptures. However, there are many examples in Scripture of individuals whose relationship with God had suffered because of sin. For instance, King David was such a person. Psalm 51 is an example of his prayer of confession. In a sense, this is a rededication in that a believer recognizes that his life is not pleasing to God and ask for God's help to cleanse him of sin. See also 1 John 1:9. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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58 | bible written how many yearss | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 236352 | ||
Greetings Justme I think that CDBJ was saying that it took about 1500 years to write the Bible (span of writing), not that it was written 1500 years ago (time of writing). Your Brother in Christ Tim Moran |
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59 | the fly away doctrine | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 236168 | ||
Greetings Escar! By 'fly away doctrine', do you mean the rapture of the Church? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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60 | Romans 7:1-4 | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 236116 | ||
Greetings Steve! These are certainly examples of the Sabbath being kept, but I believe the question was whether or not there is a command in the New Testament to keep the Sabbath. None of these examples are imperatives. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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