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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6761 | please interpret this verse | Job 1:6 | Morant61 | 4605 | ||
Question: Can you provide a reference for your first statement that God cannot look upon sin? It would help to understand your question. Tim Moran |
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6762 | Does this explain Trinity? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4540 | ||
Greetings, In your response, you started off with some good questions. You said that we all agree that Jesus is the Word (Jn. 1:14). You then stated that according to Genesis God created the world. You then asked, Jesus was with God in the beginning of what? If you stay with the context of John 1, it tells us what beginning John was talking about. John 1:3 says, "Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made." (NIV) Therefore, logically, Jesus is God. Since, God created everything according to Genesis and Jesus created everything according to John 1:3. In fact, this is exactly the point of John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." So John 1 makes 3 points about Jesus. 1. He is eternal (from the beginning). 2. He is God, and 3. He created everything. In fact, the other passage you quoted from (Col. 1:15-20) makes almost exactly the same claims for Christ. Col. 1:16 says that He created all things. Col. 1:17 says that He holds all things together. Col. 1:15 and 1:19 says that He is the image of the invisible God, with the fulness of God dwelling within Him (not an imperfect copy). Thus, according to Col. 1:15 and 1:18, He is the firstborn or supreme over everything. Thus, John 1 and Col. 1 both say that Jesus is fully God in every sense of the word. Thanks, Tim Moran |
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6763 | New Testament guidlines | 1 Tim 2:12 | Morant61 | 4470 | ||
May I throw out a question for debate? Should 1 Tim. 2:12 be taken as a commandment from God which is in force at all times and all cultures? Or, should 1 Tim. 2:12 be taken as Paul's practice in the time in which he lived? The reason I ask is the text specifically says, "I do not allow....." Is Paul giving us a universal principle or a cultural one? Are there any other passages that specifically say that God does not allow a woman to teach or preach? As you can probably tell from my question, I lean toward 1 Tim. 2:12 being a cultural principle. However, I am willing to keep an open mind! Tim Moran |
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6764 | Popular opinion? or Scripture? | 1 Tim 2:12 | Morant61 | 4469 | ||
Greetings, Romans 16:1 literally reads, "But I commend to you Phoebe our sister and deacon of the church in Cenchrea. (My translation based upon the 26th Edition of Nestle Aland's Greek Text)." The term translated as 'servant' in both the KJV and the NIV is the same word translated in 1 Tim. 3:8 and 3:12 as 'deacons.' The difficulty is in deciding what the word means in this text. The word 'deacon' is used in many ways in the New Testament. In the Gospels, it always refers to a servant (Mt. 20:26, 22:13, 23:11, Mk. 9:35, 10:43, Jn. 2:5, 9, and 12:26). It is used in the same way a number of times in the rest of the New Testament (Rom. 13:4, 15:8, 1 Cor. 3:5, 2 Cor. 6:4, 11:15, 11:23, Gal. 2:17 (Servants of sin), Eph. 3:7, 6:21, Phil. 1:1, Col. 1:7, 23, 4:7, and 1 Tim. 4:6). Then there are several passages where it seems to describe an office (2 Cor. 3:6, Col. 1:25, 1 Tim. 3:8, and 3:12). The question then is which meaning applies in Rom. 16:1? Given that the other two occurances of this word in Romans definitely do not describe a deacon of the church, I would say it is used in the more general sense of a servant rather than a deacon. However, I could be wrong. Tim Moran |
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6765 | Should the Bible be taken literally? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4149 | ||
Greetings! I haven't had a chance to read this whole thread, so I might be repeating old material. If I might make an observation, I believe that you are taking the Bible literally only when you understand the original context and then apply it appropritately. Given the original context, the exact historical situation might not be be same, but the underlying principle in the text may still apply. For instance, In 1 Cor. 8, Paul addresses the issue of eating meat offered to idols. This is not a problem that we face today, however the principle of 1 Cor. 8:9 (not using your freedom is such a way that a brother is made to stumble) does apply. Thus, while not every historical situation may apply to today, the Biblical principles certainly do. Tim Moran |
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6766 | Apostasy vs. heresy. | 2 Tim 4:3 | Morant61 | 4140 | ||
When I was in Graduate School, our Dean made an excellent observation about heresy. He said: "Heresy is the revenge of neglected truth. (Dr. Fetters - 11/2/88)" His point was simply that heresy springs up during times when the church has neglected the great truths of the Bible. Tim Moran |
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6767 | ... | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4071 | ||
In Luke 22:31, Jesus says that "Satan has asked to sift you as wheat (NIV).) The 'you' in this verse is the 2nd person, accusative, plural pronoun. Therefore, Jesus in saying that Satan has asked to sift all of the Disciples. But, in verse 32, Jesus says, "But I have prayed for you, Simon, that your faith may not fail (NIV)." In this instance, the pronoun is the 2nd person, genative, singular pronoun. Thus, verse 32 refers only to Peter. In both cases, the pronoun is the same expect for case and number. I hope this helps. Tim Moran |
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6768 | no first day in the greek | Luke 24:1 | Morant61 | 4030 | ||
Good answer! The Greek of Luke 24:1 literally reads: "But on the one of the sabbath...." Sabbath could refer to either the Sabbath (7th Day) or the Week itself. The phrase "one of the sabbath" is therefore a reference to the 1st day of the week. Tim Moran |
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6769 | Who wet Jesus feet with her tears? | Luke 7:44 | Morant61 | 4026 | ||
Each of the four Gospels records an instance involving a woman with perfume and Jesus (Mt. 26:6-13, Mk. 14:3-9, Lk. 7:36-50, and John 12:1-8). However, the incident described in Luke appears to be a different one than the one described in the other three Gospels. The incident in Luke occurs early in the ministry of Jesus, while the other three accounts occur in the last week of Jesus' life. The focus in Luke is on the character of the woman touching Jesus, while in the other three accounts the focus is on the price of the perfume. The woman in John is described as "Mary of Bethany," but the woman in Luke is never named. I hope this is helpful. Tim Moran. |
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6770 | ingredients found in the annoiting oil | Ex 30:22 | Morant61 | 4000 | ||
Ex. 30:22-33 (NIV) lists the ingredients of annointing oil as: 500 shekels of liguid myrrh, 250 shekels of fragrant cinnamon, 250 shekels of fragrant cane, 500 shekels of cassia, and one hin of olive oil. I hope this helps. Tim Moran |
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