Results 6661 - 6680 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6661 | Who knows? | Rev 21:27 | Morant61 | 7384 | ||
Greetings JVHO212! Since we approach the issue of election from different perspectives, I'm sure that we would not agree on how the names are written in the Book of life. However, we can definitely both agree that there is a tremendous amount of confidence that comes from knowing that nothing can remove us from God's grace. Charis made an excellent point earlier when He asked (to paraphrase) what practical use is this issue. Here is one answer to that question: To give us assurance that our salvation is in God's hands, not the Anti-Christ's. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6662 | Is Entire Sanctification Scriptural? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7383 | ||
Greetings JVHO212! Thanks for the input! I will definitely add these to my list of references to study. I have found already that one of the problems in studying this doctrine is that there are so many terms that refer to sanctification. It makes it extremely difficult to just trace one word through the Bible, you have to examine several. Thanks for the links that you provide as well! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6663 | Is Entire Sanctification Scriptural? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7382 | ||
Greetings Charis! Thanks for the help! United Brethren in Christ is a group that is distantly related to Methodist. The boring history is that our denomination split in about 1889 into the United Brethren Old Constitution and United Brethren New Constitution (Please, no jokes about United Brethren splitting - :-) ) I belong to the Old Constitution group. The new constitution group joined with the Evangelical Brethren to form the Evangelical United Brethren. Later, the EUB's joined with the Methodist to form the United Methodist. Our denomination is definitely Wesleyan/Arminian in theology, but entire sanctification was never embraced by our denomination. I agree with you that simpler is better. I haven't ruled out the doctrine yet, but I have found a few verses that seem to indicate that there might be something to it. For instance, a number of times Paul prays for Christians to be fully sanctified (aorist tense signifying one time action.) I have ordered a book entitled "Five Views on Sanctification", which is published by Zondervan. I hope it will allow me to examine all sides of the issue and come to a conclusion. Thanks! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6664 | 5:1 the door handle to Christianity | Rom 5:1 | Morant61 | 7373 | ||
Greetings Ezjman! Your note just popped up on the top of the home page of the forum. It was the first time I had a chance to read it. I just wanted to commend you! You did an excellent job of summarizing the first 8 chapters of Romans. There seems to be two key verses that sum up what you are saying. 1) Chapters 1-3: Romans 3:23 - "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," 2) Chapters 4-8: Romans 6:23 - "For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6665 | Who knows? | Rev 21:27 | Morant61 | 7372 | ||
Greetings Charis! I appreciated your comments! There is nothing wrong with being firm in one's beliefs. However, we all too often become dogmatic on things that Scripture is not dogmatic about. The "book of life" occurs six times in the book of Revelation. They are: 1) Rev. 3:5 - "He who overcomes will, like them, be dressed in white. I will never blot out his name from the book of life, but will acknowledge his name before my Father and his angels." 2) Rev. 13:8 - "All inhabitants of the earth will worship the beast—all whose names have not been written in the book of life belonging to the Lamb that was slain from the creation of the world." 3) Rev. 17:8 - "The beast, which you saw, once was, now is not, and will come up out of the Abyss and go to his destruction. The inhabitants of the earth whose names have not been written in the book of life from the creation of the world will be astonished when they see the beast, because he once was, now is not, and yet will come." 4) Rev. 20:12 - "And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books." 5) Rev. 20:15 - "If anyone’s name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire." 6) Rev. 21:27 - "Nothing impure will ever enter it, nor will anyone who does what is shameful or deceitful, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb’s book of life." There are only a couple of statements of fact that can be made from these references. a) The "book of life" is more than just the "book of the living." I have heard some say that the "book of life" is nothing more than a list of those who are or have been alive. However, the references above make it pretty clear that it refers to a list of believers. (How a believer is listed in the book is not explained!) b) Those who are listed in the book will not worship the Beast. c) Those whoare listed in the book will not be astonished (like the world) when the Beast appears. d) The "book of life" will be instrumental at judgement in some fashion. e) Those who are not listed in the "book of life" will face eternity in hell. f) Only those recorded in the "book of life" will enter the Kingdom of God. This seems to be about all that can dogmatically be said about the "book of life." Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6666 | Is Entire Sanctification Scriptural? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7371 | ||
Greetings Charis! Thanks for the information! Let me explain to you (and to anyone else who is interested) why I am researching this question. I am currently an ordained minister in the United Brethren in Christ denomination. I experienced some serious family problems (a runaway daughter) and am not currently pastoring. However, my family and I have been attending a local Nazarene church. The pastor there has been talking with me about the possiblity of moving my ordination to the Nazarenes. Their doctrine and mine are basically the same, except for this issue of Entire Sanctification. My current understanding of Sanctification is fairly basic. I believe that the righteousness of Christ is imputed to us in a forensic sense at conversion. I also believe that the Holy Spirit progressively makes us more like Christ throughout our entire Christian life. And finally, I believe that we will be totally sanctified at our glorification. I have a basic understanding of what Wesley meant when he talked about entire sanctification or Christian perfection, but I really don't have a good grasp of the Scriptural support which is used to justify this belief. So, I'm basically beginning a personal study to discover if there is a solid bibilical basis to this doctrine or not! Some of what I have read up to this point I could agree with. Some of what I have read seems as if Scripture is being seriously stretched in order to defend a "second work of sanctification subsequent to salvation." At this point, I would like to hear from both sides of the issue. I would particularly like to hear from those who do believe in Entire Sanctification. If you were trying to convice me, what Scriptural support would you use? Or, if you were trying to oppose the doctrine, what Scriptural support would you use? Thanks Charis! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6667 | Is Entire Sanctification Scriptural? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7338 | ||
Greetings Forum! I would appreciate your help. I am currently doing a study of sanctification. I am especially interested in the doctrine of Entire Sanctification. Here is my question: Is there any support for the doctrine of Entire Sanctification in the Bible? This is not a trick question. I am in the process of studying this issue and have an open mind to whatever the Bible says. So, if you have any comments (based upon Scripture) either for or against this doctrine, I would appreciate hearing from you. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6668 | verse besides Rev.20:5 that show two res | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7330 | ||
Greetings Isabel! Off of the top of my head, I am not aware of any other verses that specify the amount of time between the two resurrections! However, we do have a very clear statement in Rev. 20:5. Concerning the telescoping of prophecy, the best example is probably Mt. 24. In Mt. 24, Jesus deals with the fall of Jerusalem and events which still have not yet occurred. However, it is very difficult to tell where Mt. 24 stops talking about past events (for us) and future events. So, John 5:25-29 could be an example of telescoping or of specificity. By that last term I mean some Scriptures simply don't deal with every detail of an issue. Some Scriptures are more general in nature. When this occurs, we must allow Scripture to interpret Scripture by pulling other verses in. So Rev. 20:5, would help clarify or explain in greater detail John 5:25-29. Well, I've got to get to bed! Bye for now! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6669 | What are the seven Spirits of God? | Rev 4:5 | Morant61 | 7303 | ||
Greetings Gloria! Steve gave an excellent answer to your question. I would like to add another observation though. There is no way to be dogmatic about this phrase, but some feel that it is a reference to the Holy Spirit. The Greek of Rev. 4:5 literally says, "the seven spirits of God." Some think that the number seven may be a reference to Is. 11:2-3, which lists seven qualities of the Spirit: "The Spirit of the LORD will rest on him— the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding, the Spirit of counsel and of power, the Spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the LORD— 3 and he will delight in the fear of the LORD. He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes, or decide by what he hears with his ears;" I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6670 | How should we deal with difficult people | Matt 5:39 | Morant61 | 7302 | ||
Greetings Nolan! I have a little different take on this issue than most people (that I know.) I think Mt. 5:38-42 absolutely teaches that Christians are not to be people who "resist" evil people, in the sense of claiming our rights. The issue in this passage was how to respond when someone went beyond their legal limits in their relationship with you. The Law gave answers to each of the situations listed in Mt. 5:38-42, but Jesus said that we should not avail ourselves of their remedies, but go "the extra mile." I think the issue really revolves around our attitude when we are mistreated. Christians should not retaliate in kind. Christians should not be angry. Christians should not try to get even or gain the upper hand. Christians should simply "turn the other check" and then (Mt. 5:42-48) love our enemies. Most will view this as being a door mat! I prefer to see it as modeling ourselves after Christ, who suffered without saying a word. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6671 | How many resurrections, and where stated | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7301 | ||
Greetings Isabel! The answer to your question about the number of resurrections is found in Rev. 20:5 and Rev. 20:12-13. Rev. 20:5 clearly states that there will be more than one resurrection. Those who are a part of the first resurrection reign with Christ for a thousand years. Rev. 20:12-13 deals with the "rest of the dead", who do not reign with Christ and are subject to the second death. In actuality, there are several resurrections. The "first" of Rev. 20:5 seems to be in relationship to the last resurrection of Rev. 20:12-13, not 'first' in a chronological sense. I say this because the evidence for the following resurrections. a) The resurrection of Christ and the Old Testament saints - 1 Cor. 15:23 and Mt. 27:52-53. b) The resurrection of dead saints and the translation of living saints at 13-18. c) The resurrection of the two witnesses in Rev. 11:3-11. (This may be a subset of the rapture!) There are probably more references, but this is just a quick list that I threw together. Concerning the relationship of multiple resurrections to John 5:28-29, I think that John 5:28-29 is an example of prophetic telescoping. In prophecy, several distant (in time) events are often telescoped together in such a way that they appear as a single event. Thus, John 5:28-29 is concerned with the reality of resurrection and judgement, not necessarily with giving an indepth description of how it occurs. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6672 | going to heaven..body and soul.. | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7300 | ||
Greetings Jaded13! I always tell my Bible Study group that "there is no dumb question, except the question we don't ask!" Your question basically contains two parts. What happens to the soul of a believer at death? What happens to the body of a believer after death? Two passages in particular, make it very clear that as soon as a believer dies, their soul is present with Christ: 2 Cor. 5:8 says, "We are confident, I say, and would prefer to be away from the body and at home with the Lord." Phil. 2:21-23 says, "For to me, to live is Christ and to die is gain. 22 If I am to go on living in the body, this will mean fruitful labor for me. Yet what shall I choose? I do not know! 23 I am torn between the two: I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far;" There are others, but these should suffice to demonstrate that a believer's (soul or spirit) is immediately present with Christ after death. The second part of your question is answered by 1 Thess. 4:16-17, which says, "For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever." Here it is clear that a believers body and (soul or spirit) will be reunited at the rapture. Those who die after the rapture, will be reunited at a different time. Revelation 20:4-6 says of them: "I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony for Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. 5 (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. 6 Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection. The second death has no power over them, but they will be priests of God and of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." I hope this answers your question! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6673 | Holy Day or Holiday? | Col 2:16 | Morant61 | 7288 | ||
Greetings JHVO212! Excellent answer with terrific background material! The most telling point that you made is the fact that not once in the New Testament are Christians commanded to keep the Sabbath. Keep up the good work! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6674 | Is this verse a parenthesis in the Mss | Rev 20:5 | Morant61 | 7287 | ||
Greetings Nolan! You are absolutely correct! I checked the Greek text. Not only does the verse exist in the Manuscript, there are absolutely no variant readings associated with the verse at all. Therefore, the parenthesis must be an interpretative tool added by the translators to help make the text more understandable. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6675 | Elder must be 'the husband of one wife'? | 1 Tim 3:2 | Morant61 | 7095 | ||
Greetings JHVO212! I whole heartedly agree with your interpretation of 1 Tim. 3:2. However, I must clarify your statemen about the Greek text. The words used here ('aner - man' and 'gune - woman') can mean either "man and woman" or "husband and wife." They most commonly refer to simply a man or woman, but depending on the context, they can mean husband and wife. However, the normal usage when describing a husband or a wife would include some sort of possive indicator (like 'his woman'.) So, 1 Tim. 3:2 is a very unusual phrase. But, even if we take the phrase to mean "a husband of one wife," this is no way negates the excellent points you have made about the context of the passage. The concern is the moral qualities of the leaders, not their marital status. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6676 | What does the word "Wormwood" mean? | Rev 8:11 | Morant61 | 7093 | ||
Greetings Nolan! The word in question is the Greek word 'apsinthos.' It simply means bitter. It is derived from a bitter herb (wormwood)that was used to cure intestinal worms. The word is only found in this verse of the Bible (twice). It is mentioned seven times in the Old Testament where it represents sorrow and bitter judgment (Deut. 29:18; Prov. 5:4; Jer. 9:15; 23:15; Lam. 3:15, 19; Amos 5:7). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6677 | Persuasion or manipulation? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 7086 | ||
Greetings JVHO212! I've never really thought about this question before! I did a search on the Greek words for "persuasion" and "convince." They seem to be used in both a positive and a negative sense. So, I'm not sure there is really a Biblical answer to this question. However, I think we can appeal to Biblical principles! a) I would see persuasion as an attempt to convince someone of the truth, based upon a loving desire to benefit them. b) I would see manipulation as an attempt to convince someone of a position, based upon a selfish desire to benefit oneself. But, this is just my opinion! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6678 | What is the word "Abaddon" referring to? | Job 26:6 | Morant61 | 7085 | ||
Greetings Nolan! The word "Abaddon" seems to be most likely a synonym for "Sheol." Hebrew prose tends to use a lot of duplicate words with the same meaning in conjuction with each other. "Abaddon" only occurs 6 times in the Old Testament. Twice it is used with "Sheol." Twice it is used with "Grave." Therefore, "Abbandon" probably refers to a place of destruction (lit. the grave or hell). Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6679 | What is this pattern? | Phil 3:17 | Morant61 | 7056 | ||
Greetings Charis! This is an excellent question. I think the only way to determine the pattern is to examine the context of the chapter. Paul's primary concern in this chapter are the Judaizers (3:2), who are changing the Gospel. He tells the Philippians to "watch out" for these false teachers. Note the similarity to his command in 3:17 to "take note" of those who live correctly. So, I would say that the pattern Paul referred to is the pattern of correct teaching that he gave them when he led them to Christ. Thus, the Philippians are being told to note those who agree with Paul's pattern of teaching, and watch out for those who deviate from the Gospel of Grace. p.s. - I've always been intrigued by your screen name. I have a daughter named Charissa. Her name is derived from the Greek word 'charis,' which means "Grace." So Grace to you Charis, Tim Moran |
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6680 | How do you respond to these passages? | 1 John 2:2 | Morant61 | 7030 | ||
Greetings Joe! 1) Accomplished objective fact: I understand where you are coming from. I just disagree with your conclusion that an unlimited atonement must necessarily mean that all will be saved. This is a good illustration of why some doctrines are difficult to discuss. You and I have slightely different baggage attached to words and don't always see word meanings in the same light. But, this is why we communicate! 2) Concerning the issue of nations. Just a slight clarification and challenge. I don't see Romans 9-11 and Ephesians 1 as dealing with the election of nations. I see them dealing with the issue of corporate election in Christ. The nations issue is an example of how God's purpose of election is carried out. Romans 9 is (in my view) an argument for God's sovereign right to include anyone He wishes into the elect body of Israel. Here is my challenge: I can understand that some might accuse me of interpreting Romans 9 in this way simply because of my theological bias. In my view, it is demanded by the text. So, here is my challenge (or question): Why do all the quotes used from the Old Testament in Romans 9 deal with God's choice of and use of nations, and not individuals? Look at each quote used in Romans 9 and see if in it's original context the quotes referred to individuals or nations! 3) Concerning 2 Cor 5:20: I appreciate your honesty here. No matter which way you look at this verse (Calvinism or Arminianism), I don't think it is addressed to Paul's audience. Rather, I think it is a summary of the message of reconciliation that Paul preaches to the world. The same message that all of us who are compeled by the love of Christ should be preaching. (This would be a great verse for your teens on their missions trip!) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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