Results 6741 - 6760 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Date |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
6741 | Modes or Persons? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4940 | ||
Hi Sharp! Have you been arguing or debating? :-) I understand where you are coming from with your questions. The problem is that they don't prove that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are modes as opposed to three Persons with in a Trinity. Everything that can be said about the Father, can be said about the Son, can be said about the Holy Spirit (with the exception of the incarnation). I have no problem with Jesus being the first and the last and the Father being the first and the last, because they are both God. The only point we seem to disagree on is whether or not Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are only modes in which God operates, or three distinct, but equal persons within the Godhead. I have been honestly trying to deal with your questions. I would like to ask you to explain your view of John 14:23 for me. As a modalist, how can Jesus speak of 'we' when He says that the Father and the Son will come to dwell within a believer? If there is no plurality within the Godhead, there could be no we! I'm looking forward to your response. I may not be able to reply until later though, I am getting ready to go to bed. I have been up all night! God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6742 | Can Modes Interact with One Another? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4932 | ||
Hi Sharp! As I've said in an earlier post, we would agree on almost everything you say about the Godhead. Is Jesus fully God? Of course He is! The only difference between the doctrines of Modalism and Trinity is on the question of whether or not Father, Son, and Spirit are three modes of God or three disinct 'persons' within the Godhead. Is there only One God and Father of all? Of course there is only one God. The doctrine of the Trinity does not teach that there are three Gods. It simply accepts the reality of three distinct Persons, who are all God. It is definitely not easy to understand God's nature. However, Modalism does not seem to do just to the reality of the Three. Jesus prays to the Father. Jesus ascends to the Father. Jesus is sent by the Father. Jesus and the Father both send the Holy Spirit. How do you explain the interaction? Let me ask a question which is similar to my first question. In John 14:23, why does Jesus use a plural 'we' when He speaks of the Father and the Son coming to live within the believer? Let me be clear, I do not believe in multiple Gods! There is only one God. Yet, within that one God, there appears to be three distinct persons, not just modes. They interact with one another. They can be obedient to one another. How can a mode pray to another mode? I'm looking forward to your reply! God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6743 | unlimited atonement? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4909 | ||
Greetings, I just came across your question. I am an Arminian, so let me take a shot at answering your question. Calvanists and Arminians disagree on several crucial points. One of those areas of disagreement concerns the extent of the atonement. Calvinists believe that on the cross Christ atoned for the sins of the elect only. Hence, the term 'limited atonement.' Arminians believe that on the cross Christ potentially atoned for the sins of the entire world. Hence, the term 'unlimited atonement.' This does not mean, however, that Arminians believe that everyone will be saved. The atonement at the cross is for everyone, but effective only for those who respond to God's grace in faith. Thus, God's foreknowledge of who will be saved does not limit the atonement. The 'unlimited' part of the phrase refers to those for whom the atonement is available, not to the actual number of the atoned. I hope this helps! Tim Moran |
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6744 | What does "emptied Himself" really mean | Phil 2:7 | Morant61 | 4908 | ||
Greetings RWC! I think you have made some excellent points. Phil. 2:5-11 never says that Jesus ceased to be God. It does say, however, that a change occurred in His status. He 'emptied Himself' by, according to Phil. 2:7, "....taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness." Therefore, the 'emptying of Himself' refers to the fact that He did not grasp or hold on to the rank and privilege that He had as God, but took upon Himself a real, human nature. He became fully man and fully God at the same time. I like the way 2 Cor. 8:9 puts it: "For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich." However, I believe that Jesus became fully human in the way that Adam was created. In other words, you can't really compare the humanity of Christ with fallen humanity. He always knew who He was and what He was doing. He was always aware of His Father's presence. So, He wasn't human in exactly the same sense that we are human. He was perfect and sinless, we aren't. I think this is the reason why we have such a hard time understanding His humanity. Thanks for the question. Tim Moran |
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6745 | Time for Worship? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4906 | ||
Hi Steve! 1) Words. From your two posts, I'm assuming that you feel that worship should be done in a certain position. I will grant that many of the words for worship included the idea of bowing or prostrating one's self before someone or something else. However, is this an essential part of worship or a cultural part of worship? In other words, does the fact that most people then bowed to worship mean that we must as well? Are there any Scriptures that proscribe the way in which we must worship? 2) Translations. I really didn't see any problems with the tranlations that I checked. Do you have any specific examples? 3) Teachings. You lost me on this one! You saw only 2 of what 200 teachings? Who are they? I have enjoyed the study I have been doing of some of these words. However, the biggest problem I see in worship is simply that we don't allow ourselves enough time to really experience God's presence. We rush through our worship services. We rush through our devotions. We never (or at least seldom) slow down enough to worship. Tim Moran |
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6746 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4904 | ||
Hi Jim! John 14:23 is an excellent example of what I was saying. John 14:23 - Jesus replied, ‘‘If anyone loves me, he will obey my teaching. My Father will love him, and we will come to him and make our home with him. Clearly, Jesus is refering to two members of the Godhead in this verse. In fact, He refers to them both in the plural - 'we will come' and 'we will make our home'. This verse cannot be explained as two modes or offices of God. Thanks for your input! Tim Moran |
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6747 | Human and Divine? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4903 | ||
Hi Sharp! Let me start with me response, then I'll deal with your question. 1) Response If I understand your response to my question correctly, you are saying that Jesus was praying to Himself because He was operating at that moment as a man and not as God. Let me know if I have missed the boat! My problem with that interpretation is this: Yes, Jesus was fully man, but He was also fully God. What I mean is this. The fullness of the Godhead was always as much a part of His nature as was His humanity. There was never a time when Jesus was not aware of who He was (the 2nd person of the Godhead.) Jesus even says to Philip, "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’?" (John 14:9). Clearly, Jesus is fully aware of His Divinity as well as His humanity. Therefore, when Jesus says that He will pray to the Father, I believe He is really praying to someone. Also, when He says that He will pray for another Comforter, I believe that there really is another Comforter. Therefore, I don't think that you can explain this verse away by appealing to His humanity. What do you think? 2) Answer. I'm not sure I understand where you are going with this line of questioning. Usually, this is a tact taken by those trying to disprove the Deity of Christ. Can you clarify where you are going? In the meantime, let me address this passage. There is one thing that we know about Christ, there never was a time when He did not exist. He is fully God (Col. 2:9, John 1:1) and as such has always existed. So, whatever Heb. 1:6 is refering to it is not refering to a point in time when Christ came into existence. However, the incarnation is not the normal state of Christ. This seems to be what Heb. 1:6 is refering to. On the day that Christ was born of the virgin Mary, He became the Son of God (a status change). This is a name that is superior to the angels and unique to Christ (Phil. 2:9-11). Two other passages (Acts 13:33 and Rom. 1:3-4) even go further and specify that it was the resurrection which declares the Jesus is the Son of God. So, my answer to your question is this: At His birth and resurrection, Jesus was declared the Son of God. However, there never was a time when Christ, the Second Person of the Trinity did not exist. God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6748 | Do We Worship On Our Knees Only? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4857 | ||
Greetings, Could you provide some specifics for your question? Broad questions are difficult to discuss. For instance, what words for worship did you study? What translations are in error? What teachings have you heard that were in error? This sounds like an interesting topic! Tim Moran |
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6749 | Three Offices or Three Persons? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4854 | ||
Thanks for your response! Now that I understand where you are coming from, here is what I propose. The major point that we disagree on is whether or not there are three persons in the Godhead or three offices in the Godhead. We both believe there is only one God. So, the question we need to focus on is what the Bible says about the three (persons/offices). Since this is such a complex issue, I would like to narrow the focus. I propose that we exchange questions that we feel illustrate our position. In order for this to work, we both must honestly and fairly deal with the question asked. Too often, in complex debates, questions are never really dealt with, only swept away with more questions. If you are open to this, it should be a fun and challenging debate. Here is my first question: Who was Jesus praying to in John 14:16? John 14:16 - "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever—" Clearly, Jesus is praying to the Father, asking that the Father will send another Counselor (The Holy Spirit) to dwell within believers. If (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) are only three offices or roles in which God manifests Himself, who was Jesus praying to when He prayed to the Father? I'm looking forward to your response and question. Tim Moran |
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6750 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4834 | ||
Sorry, double post! |
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6751 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4800 | ||
Thanks for your response! I'm not sure if I understood your original question correctly. I was under the impression that you were questioning the Trinity by implying that Jesus and the Father were both one in the flesh, rather than distinct members of the Godhead. After reading your most recent response, I still get that impression, but I'm not sure. Could you clarify for me what you were getting at with your original question? For now, allow me to respond as though my assumption is correct. There is nothing in this passage that is contrary to the doctrine of the Trinity. In fact, the passage supports the doctrine of the Trinity. Notice how all Three Members of the Trinity are mentioned in this passage. 1) John 10:12 - Jesus says that He will go to the Father. 2) John 10:13 - Jesus will respond to our prayers that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 3) John 10:16 - Jesus prays to the Father for Another Comforter (The Holy Spirit). Clearly, we have three Members of the Godhead mentioned in this passage. One (Jesus) is incarnate on earth, praying to another (the Father), that He will send another (the Holy Spirit) to dwell in believers after Jesus ascends back to the Father. If I have misunderstood your position, please let me know! God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6752 | Have I misunderstood your question? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4799 | ||
Thanks for your response! I'm not sure if I understood your original question correctly. I was under the impression that you were questioning the Trinity by implying that Jesus and the Father were both one in the flesh, rather than distinct members of the Godhead. After reading your most recent response, I still get that impression, but I'm not sure. Could you clarify for me what you were getting at with your original question? For now, allow me to respond as though my assumption is correct. There is nothing in this passage that is contrary to the doctrine of the Trinity. In fact, the passage supports the doctrine of the Trinity. Notice how all Three Members of the Trinity are mentioned in this passage. 1) John 10:12 - Jesus says that He will go to the Father. 2) John 10:13 - Jesus will respond to our prayers that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 3) John 10:16 - Jesus prays to the Father for Another Comforter (The Holy Spirit). Clearly, we have three Members of the Godhead mentioned in this passage. One (Jesus) is incarnate on earth, praying to the Father, that He will send Another Comforter to dwell in believers after Jesus ascends back to the Father. If I have misunderstood your position, please let me know! God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6753 | JOE THROWS ONENESS INTO HERESY | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4747 | ||
Greetings RevC: I have been following your dialogue about the Oneness belief. Most everything you say about Jesus, a trinitarian would accept as well. The only point of contention is whether or not there are three distince Persons (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) in the Godhead (the Trinity) or whether these three terms all refer to one Person (Jesus Only). With this in mind, I would like to address question # 4 in your list. Look at Luke 22:42! Jesus is in the garden preparing to face His death. As the incarnate Son, He prays to His Father, "Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done." My answer to your question # 4 is that the three terms definitetly refer to three distint Persons, not simply three offices or modes. In this prayer, Jesus is praying to someone else - His Father. He asks for one thing (the cup to be taken from Him), but yields to the will of His Father instead. If there are not three Persons in the Godhead, how do you explain this verse? Was Jesus praying to Himself? If there are not three Persons in the Godhead, how could Jesus yield to someone else's will? He clearly states His will, but chooses to comply with His Father's will instead. The simplest and most logical explanation of this verse is an interaction between two members of the Godhead, each unique and distinct from the other. I look forward to your reply! Tim Moran |
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6754 | once saved always saved? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4741 | ||
Whoops! Sorry about that! Can we get a spell checker on this forum? Humbly, Tim Moran |
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6755 | Why Saul to Paul? | Acts 13:9 | Morant61 | 4688 | ||
Greetings, One commentary I consulted (The Bible Knowledge Commentary) suggested that Paul is used from this point on because it is at this point that Paul steps into a leadership position in the mission to the Gentiles. Paul was Saul's Roman name. Paul himself only uses Saul when he refers back to his prior life (Acts 22:7, 26:14). Other than that, I haven't heard of any significant reason for the change in names. Tim Moran |
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6756 | once saved always saved? | NT general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 4661 | ||
Greetings, I happen to come from an Armenian perspective. However, there are several points that I think both Calvanists and Armenians can agree on: 1) Our Salvation is a free Gift of God - Rom. 6:23. 2) We can neither earn nor un-earn our Salvation - Eph. 2:8-9. 3) We are secure in God's hands - Rom. 8:35-39. We may agree or disagree of other points, but these are the most important. Peace, Tim Moran |
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6757 | A Hebrew Version of Matthew? | Matthew | Morant61 | 4660 | ||
Greetings: There are ancient traditions that Matthew wrote either a Gospel or a collection of sayings in Hebrew. Here are the relevant quotes. 1) Papias wrote, "Matthew composed the Logia in the Hebrew tongue and everyone interpreted them as he was able." (Cited by Eusebius, HE, iii. 39. 16.) 2) Irenaeus wrote, "Now Matthew published also a book of the Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching the gospel in Rome and founding the Church." (Cited by Eusebius, HE, v. 8. 2.) 3) According to Eusebius, Pantaenus went to India and found that the Gospel of Matthew was already there in Hebrew. (HE, v. 10). 4) Finally, Origen stated that Matthew had composed a Gospel in Hebrew. (J. Munck in Neotestamentica et Patristica, 1962, pp. 249-260). There are several reasons why these statements are traditionally discounted. 1) Most people believe that the Gospels are late compostions. However, if these statements are true, then Matthew may have been written before Peter and Paul were killed, not hundreds of years after the death of Christ as so many want to believe. 2) Most scholars today believe that Mark was written first and that Matthew and Luke used Mark and an unknown document Q to compose their Gospels. However, if Matthew wrote in Hebrew and early, then it is unlikely that Mark was first, since Mark was most likely written with Peter's help. Some have tried to say that maybe this Hebrew Gospel was Q. These quotes are a fascinating study and further evidence that the Gospels were probably written much earlier than scholars commonally believe. I hope this answers your question. Tim Moran |
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6758 | How many before Pilate | Luke 23:1 | Morant61 | 4659 | ||
Luke 22:66 identifies the body as the council of the Elders, otherwise known as the Sanhedrin. The Sanhedrin was basically the Jewish Supreme Court and traditionally numbered 70 members, after the 70 Elders who assisted Moses in judging Israel (Num. 11:16-24). So, the body was a quite large number of people. It may even have included other witnesses and family or friends (see the reference to the crowd in Luke 23:4). I hope this helps! Tim Moran |
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6759 | don'y understand your answer | Job 1:6 | Morant61 | 4611 | ||
Wow! I wasn't expecting such a quick response. The reason I asked for a reference is two fold. First, I did a search using my Bible software and I couldn't find any verse in any version of the Bible that says God can't look upon sin. Second, from a logical standpoint, He must be able to look upon sin or He wouldn't be able to see anything that happens in this world. If you find the reference, please let me know. God Bless, Tim Moran |
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6760 | Was there two from the godhead Christ? | John 6:56 | Morant61 | 4610 | ||
Allow me to address both of the Scriptures that you quote. In Cor. 5:19, 'in Christ' cleary refers to the means of reconciliation that God was using, not the location of God physically. Here is the passage in it's context. 1 Cor. 5:18 "All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: 19 that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation. 20 We are therefore Christ’s ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ’s behalf: Be reconciled to God." Notice the progression. God works through Christ, then through us to reconcile the world to Himself. Now concerning John 14:10, let's compare it to John 6:56. In John 6:56, Christ says, "Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in him." The word translated 'remains in' in this verse is the same word translated as 'living in' in John 14:10. Therefore, Christ has the same relationship with those who eat of His flesh and blood as God the Father has with God the Son incarnate. Does this mean that Jesus is literally present in the flesh within believers? Of course not? Neither was God the Father present in the flesh inside the incarnate Christ. Thanks, Tim Moran |
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