Results 21 - 40 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
21 | how can we minister to homosexuals | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209507 | ||
Greetings Doc! You wrote: "The only hope for anyone is through redemption in Jesus Christ. Those who willfully practice sin can be wonderfully and marvelously saved... and when they are saved, the willful practice of these kinds of sins will disappear. They will no longer be the "them" of 1 Corinthians 6:9-10, but they will become the "you" of verse 11." Are you saying that it is possible for a Christian not to sin? If so, you are agreeing with what I previously said about Romans 6. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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22 | how can we minister to homosexuals | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209554 | ||
Greetings Doc! In your statement, you said that the 'willful practice of these sins will disappear'. Do you agree with your statement or not? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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23 | Fallen will? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209557 | ||
Greetings Doc! You wrote: "The Lord's eternal purpose isn't to enthrone the fallen human will. The sovereignty of the human self determinism is a shaky foundation, theologically, philosophically, practically, and biblically. God won't share His glory." Where in any of my posts have I said that God was enthroning the fallen human will? Paul makes it quite clear why and how we are able to live holy lives. Consider the following: Rom. 6:1-5 tells us that holiness is grounded in the death and resurrection of Christ. Rom. 6:6 tells us that our 'old man' was crucified with Christ. Rom. 6:13 tells us that we have been 'brought' from death to life (passive voice). Rom. 6:18 tells us that we have been set free from sin (Aorist, passive, participle - past action done for us). Rom. 6:22 tells us that we receive the 'benefit' of holiness from Christ setting us free from sin. Rom. 8:2 tells us that we are set free from the Law of sin and death 'through Christ Jesus.' Rom. 8:4 tells us that the 'righteous requirements of the law are fully met in us' because of God's actions in sending Christ. Rom. 8:9 tells us that we are able to live holy lives because 'we are controlled by the Spirit'. Rom. 8:13 tells us that the misdeeds of the body are put to death through the Spirit. Where is any of this based upon the supposed enthroning of the fallen human will? Where is any of this an effort to wrest glory from God? Please respond with examples and Scripture! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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24 | Fallen will? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209558 | ||
Sorry Doc! I hit 'question', instead of 'note'! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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25 | Fallen will? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 209576 | ||
Greeting Doc! If direct quotes from Paul make for an unsound foundation, then I'll stand firm on that foundation since the Lord laid it. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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26 | A difficult question | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 210517 | ||
Greetings COG88! I see that some others have recommended some good reading material concerning this issue. May I recommend another. "The Canon of Scripture" by F. F. Bruce is an excellent resource. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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27 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 210894 | ||
Greetings Robert! I saw your question earlier, but the way it was worded kept me from responding. There is no specific mention in Scripture of when and why Hell was created. One could safely surmise that God created Hell since all things were created by Him. :) What is commonly thought of as Hell is really the lake of fire and we are told of it that it was prepared for the devil and his angels (Mt. 25:41). Here is a part of an old post of mine concerning hell. Hopefully it will be helpful. **************** Allow me to explain my point, but first let me emphasis that I do believe in an eternal punishment in Hell for the wicked. The only problem is that the KJV (along with several other translations) translates four different words as 'hell'. This leads to much confusion over who is in hell, when, why, ect... Here are the four different words: In Hebrew (Sheol) and in Greek (Hades, Tartarus, and Gehenna). Allow me to briefly describe each term. 1) Sheol: Hebrew only uses one word to describe the state of the dead. This word can simply refer to death or the grave in general or it can refer to the spiritual status of all the dead. Prov. 9:18 says of Sheol - "But little do they know that the dead are there, that her guests are in the depths of the grave." Thus, Sheol is a place where all the dead go. Ps. 9:17 says that Sheol is a place where the wicked go - "The wicked return to the grave, all the nations that forget God." However, even godly Jacob expected to go to Sheol according to Gen. 44:29 - " If you take this one from me too and harm comes to him, you will bring my gray head down to the grave in misery.?" And, Ps. 89:48 affirms that all men will go to Sheol - "What man can live and not see death, or save himself from the power of the grave? Selah" Thus, this Old Testament word is best translated as 'Death' or the 'Grave' and simply refers to the state of all men at death. It does not refer to what we think of as 'Hell' in the sense of an eternal place of conscience punisment. 2) Hades: This is the New Testament equivalent of Sheol. It has much the same meaning as did Sheol with one exception. That exception being that the New Testament fills the meaning out with the passage to which you refered. Thus, we discover in Luke 16:20-31 that there are compartments in Sheol/Hades. There is a place of punishment where the wicked go to await final judgement and there is a paradise side, Abraham's bosom, where the righteous go to await salvation. This paradise side is now empty. After the death of Christ, complete atonement was made for sin and all those who died 'in Christ' went to be with Him in Heaven. Notice that Jesus did not tell the thief on the cross that he would be with Him in Heaven today, becase Heaven was not available until after the resurrection of Christ. The wicked dead still go to the punishment side of Sheol/Hades and will remain there until the Great White Throne of Judgement. 3) Tartarus: This word is only found once in the Bible. 2 Peter 2:4 desribes it as a place where certain Angels were placed until judgement. Some believe that it may be a lower part of Sheol/Hades. 4) Gehenna: This word describes what we commonly think of as Hell. It is used 12 times in the New Testament and describes a place of punishment, fire, and condemnation. I believe that Gehenna is also refered to in Rev. 20:11-15, where it is called a 'lake of fire'. However, note that this passage teaches that those in Sheol/Hades will be judged and then place into the 'lake of fire'. Thus, no one is actually in Hell right now! This is part of the reason why it is unBiblical to say that Jesus descended into Hell after His death. He went into Sheol/Hades (or the Grave), where Scripture foretold that God the Father would not leave Him. He went to paradise (possibly the prison of 1 Peter 3:9), but there is not any Scripture which says that He went to Hell. Nor, did He need to go to Hell to suffer and complete our salvation as many in the WOF camp teach. Our salvation was fully accomplished upon the cross and on the cross alone. I hope this answers your question and clarifies my point! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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28 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 210909 | ||
Greetings Robert! I'm glad the post was helpful my friend! In the future though, I will try to avoid abbreviations. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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29 | SEARCHING FOR THE TRUTH | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 210914 | ||
Greetings Brad! Sorry about that! :) As someone has already pointed out, 'WOF' is short for Word of Faith. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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30 | Was Pink rightPs 115:3 | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 211539 | ||
Greetings Hopalong! This topic has been discussed many times over the years. For anyone interested in reading more about it, I would encourage the use the of the search function. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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31 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 212987 | ||
Greetings Robert! If I may speak for Doc, he is saying that God is perfect, so why would He ever have to change His mind. His will for us is always perfectly loving and kind, so there is no need for a plan B. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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32 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213009 | ||
Greetings Robert! In the case of Nineveh, it wasn't so much that God changed His mind as that Nineveh repented. In other words, the warning to Nineveh was conditional. There are a limited number of places where God seems to change His mind, but they all occur in places where conditional circumstances were in place. In the didactic portions of Scripture, we are told over and over again that God does not change His mind. This was a quick response, but I hope it helps. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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33 | Searching for the truth | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213039 | ||
Greetings Robert! Let's start with what Scripture says. Following are every verse where the words 'change' and 'mind' occur together in the Bible (NIV). Num. 23:19 - "God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?" 1 Sam. 15:29 - "He who is the Glory of Israel does not lie or change his mind; for he is not a man, that he should change his mind." Ps. 110:4 - "The LORD has sworn and will not change his mind: ‘‘You are a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek.”" Heb. 7:21 - "but he became a priest with an oath when God said to him: ‘‘The Lord has sworn and will not change his mind: ‘You are a priest forever.’” Heb. 12:17 - "Afterward, as you know, when he wanted to inherit this blessing, he was rejected. He could bring about no change of mind, though he sought the blessing with tears." The last one does not refer to God. The third and fourth verses refer to a specific promise of God. The first and second refer to God in general (His nature). The only instances that I can find where God 'seems' to have changed His mind are instances like Nineveh where individuals or groups are allowed to avoid punishment because they repented. In those cases, the wrath is conditional. But, Scripture is quite clear that God does not 'change' His mind. He may respond to our repentance, but His plan is perfect. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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34 | continued pursuit, or saving faith | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213736 | ||
Greetings Beja! Boy, I tried to do a quick translation of Heb. 11:6 and I had to slow down a bit. :) Literally, Heb. 11:6 reads: "apart from faith unable to please, to believe for must he who comes to God that He is and those who seek Him the rewarder He is" It is interesting to note that v. 6 is a continuation of v. 5 and does not begin a new sentence. So, one could smooth verse 6 out thus, "for it is impossible to please (God) apart from faith, for he who comes to Him must believe that He is and that He is the rewarder of those who seek Him." What you said about this verse was right on target. 'he who comes' is in the accusative case because it is the subject of an infinitive. The verb is also deponent, which simply means that it is middle or passive in form, but active in meaning. I don't have time right now to throw in about your original question, but I welcome you to the forum. Your post have been of a very high, and welcome, quality. CDBJ has been a long time, quality contributor. So, I look forward to reading your exchanges on this question. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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35 | Study Bible | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213770 | ||
Greetings Fcs375! I am sorry that I haven't had a chance to respond to your posts as of yet. I pray that you would reconsider your decision. You made some excellent points and I think you would be a great addition to this site. I fully agree with you that we should go to Scripture first, and only then, should we go to what others have written about Scripture. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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36 | Study Bible | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 213787 | ||
Greetings Doc! As I read through this thread, I never once saw fcs375 say that anyone should ignore secondary sources. He simply said that one should go to Scripture first, and then consult commentators and other sources. That is sound advice. Some of the responses to his or her posts seemed to be responses to something that he or she never actually said. At any rate, I would hate to see a new poster forced away from the forum simply because he or she said that one should read Scripture first. :-) So, I hope fcs375 will reconsider. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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37 | belly of a whore? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 214242 | ||
Greetings ...erdone! John already pointed out that the phrase is not found anywhere in the Bible. I would add a link to a website that contains a list of other Biblical 'urban legends' that are also not found in the Bible. http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/sayings.cfm Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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38 | Divine intervention? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 214757 | ||
Greetings Vintage68! I don't believe that one can make the case that Christian stewardship only refers to spiritual things. The illustration of the steward in Luke 16 is directly applied to one's relationship to earthly wealth. Luke 16:13 says, " ‘‘No servant can serve two masters. Either he will hate the one and love the other, or he will be devoted to the one and despise the other. You cannot serve both God and Money.” " Further, Luke 16:11 specifically advises us to be "...trustworthy in handling worldly wealth." As His servants, everything we have is His and has been entrusted into our care. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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39 | Divine intervention? | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 214831 | ||
Greetings Vintage68! Please, just call me 'Tim'! :-) Sorry for the delay in responding, but like many, I have a very full schedule. You make many points. I may not be able to address them all, but I should be able to touch on several. 1) You wrote: "In the New Testament there is only (one) time where this same definition can be used. Every other place it is only used in relation to the person dealing with the spiritual things of God." This is not factually accurate. The word 'steward' occurs 10 times in the New Testament. In six of it's occurrences, it has the same meaning as in the OT: Luke 12:42, 16:1, 3, 8, Rom. 16:23, and Gal. 4:2. The other four definitely have more of a spiritual stewardship in mind: 1 Cor. 4:1, 2, Titus 1:7, and 1 Pet. 4:10. 2) Interpretation of parables: I am not sure I followed your reasoning on this issue. Yes, Luke 16 is a parable, but the 'meaning' of the parable cannot be divorced from the context of the parable. The summation (16:11-13) makes it clear that the context is the stewardship of material things like wealth or money. 3) Finally, we seem to differ on our understanding of possessions. You seem to view your material goods as yours, while I view them as things that God has entrusted to me to manage. Well, I need to run! Have a great day my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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40 | Amazing Grace! | Bible general Archive 4 | Morant61 | 215207 | ||
Greetings Mike We had a 20 year old young lady who received the gift of salvation this morning. Praise the Lord for His grace. Tim |
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