Results 161 - 180 of 6770
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Author: Morant61 Ordered by Verse |
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Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
161 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 179811 | ||
Correction... Sorry, the forum has not added a spell checker. I am using the new Firefox browser and it has added a spell checker. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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162 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180056 | ||
Greetings Gdh1127! Thanks for the reply! May I respond to your points? If I remember correctly, you mentioned that you have not had training in Greek. Allow me to point out something which may be causing some confusion and something which also points to the personhood of the Holy Spirit. The 'gender' of nouns is more a function of form than anything else. What do I mean by this? Nouns must have a form connected with them, thus some nouns are masculine, some nouns are feminine, while others are neuter. In some cases, the reason for the gender is obvious. For instance, 'man' is masculine, while 'woman' is feminine. :) In other cases, though, the reason is not apparent. 'Spirit' is neuter in form. Thus, grammatically, all of the articles and pronouns which have it as their antecedent must also be neuter in form. However, this does not necessarily mean that the Holy Spirit is not a person. It simply means that the form of the word is neuter. Interestingly, since the form of the word is neuter, grammatical rules require that all of the pronouns that refer to 'spirit' must also be neuter in form. However, in many instances, the pronouns are not neuter, but masculine. Two of the examples you used in your post incorrectly identified the pronoun as neuter when they were in fact masculine in form. The two examples are: John 14:26, and John 16:13-14. In both of these passages, 'ekeinos' is in the masculine form. Why would Scripture break the 'rule' in these cases? I believe it is because the Scripture writers were hesitant to use the neuter form for the Holy Spirit, Whom they certainly viewed as a person and not a thing! p.s. - I wanted to note that my other example (Eph. 1:14) has some textual variants involved, but John 16:13-14 do not. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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163 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180059 | ||
Greetings Again! I forgot to explicitly answer your question at the bottom of your post. You asked: "But then again, we know that God the Father is a spirit; so is the Christ and the angels. The pronoun Scriptures assigned to them is that of third person. So why would the neuter pronoun be used of the Holy Spirit?" In my previous post, I demonstrated that the neuter form of the pronoun is not always used of the Holy Spirit. As to the rest of your question, masculine pronouns are used of God and Father, because in form both God and Father are masculine nouns. Masculine pronouns are used of Christ, but Christ is masculine in form. Neuter pronouns would normally be used for the Holy Spirit because spirit is neuter in form. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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164 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180102 | ||
Greetings! Unfortunately, I do not teach Greek. It would be fun though! :) I had the opportunity once in college to teach the class for a few days while the professor (who was also the tennis coach) was away at a tournament. I'll answer your question about spelling as soon as I get home from worship. I need to get to bed for a couple of hours first though. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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165 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180117 | ||
Greetings Gdh1127! Sorry about the delay. I am a bi-vocational pastor who works nights. :-) Here is the info about 'ekeinos' which you requested. 'Ekeinos' is a demonstrative pronoun. It can be masculine, feminine, or neuter in gender. It can be singular or plural in number. But, there is no third person demonstrative pronoun. And, it can be in one of eight cases (5 forms). Here are the spellings for each. Masculine Singular forms: Nominative: ekeinos Genitive/Ablative: ekeinou Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeinw Accusative: ekeinon Masculine Plural forms: Nominative: ekeinoi Genitive/Ablative: ekeinwn Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeinois Accusative: ekeinous Feminine Singular Forms: Nominative: ekeine Genitive/Ablative: ekeines Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeine Accusative: ekeinen Feminine Plural Forms: Nominative: ekeinai Genitive/Ablative: ekeinwn Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeiais Accusative: ekeinas Neuter Singular Forms: Nominative: ekeino Genitive/Ablative: ekeinou Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeinw Accusative: ekeino Neuter Plural Forms: Nominative: ekeina Genitive/Ablative: ekeinwn Dative/Locative/Instrumental: ekeinois Accusative: ekeina I hope this helps. Transliterated spelling are hard to do and can change from book to book and person to person depending on which English letters are assigned which Greek letters. As you can see, some of the forms and spelling are identical to one another. Thus, the only way to determine the proper case, gender, or number in those situations is to look at the context. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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166 | nature of the holy spirit of god | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180139 | ||
Greetings Azure! LOL! It is not as bad as it looks. It is actually easier than English in that it is extremely regular. You just need to know the root form of the noun or verb and then add the appropriate endings. Now, there is much more variety in Greek than in English. However, it is also much more regular than English. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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167 | Adultery? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180500 | ||
Greetings Parable! You ask a very interesting question, but make some huge leaps in logic. :-) You state that: "It is also stated that Joseph was a righteous man, so divorcing Mary would have been righteous, on the grounds that she must have committed adultery." These statements simply do not logically follow from one another. Even though Joseph is a righteous man that does not mean that he is sinless. So, he could certainly be a righteous man and consider doing something sinful. Secondly, Joseph only considered putting her away privately. He did not actually do it. So, even if his considered action would have been sinful, he never actually did it. Finally, we know that Mary did not commit adultery since she knew no man until after the birth of Jesus. While most would have considered her to be either immoral or an adulteress because they did not know what God was doing, the fact remains that she did not commit adultery. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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168 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180512 | ||
Greetings Parable! Thanks for the clarification! There is no evidence that the action of the Holy Spirit was illicit or sexual. The Holy Spirit did not have sex with Mary. Scripture simply says that His power would overshadow her. So, I can't see anyway that the Spirit's actions could be construed as adultery. :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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169 | Mary's virginity remained intact | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 180617 | ||
Greetings NC! Thanks for the kind words! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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170 | Christ Jesus didnt have a wife, did he?? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 181148 | ||
Greetings BabyBear! The short answer is that some people will believe anything. :) Seriously though, there is no Scripture or historical evidence that Jesus was married or had a mistress. Some French mystic in the 14th century supposedly (if I remember correctly) had a vision that the book 'Da Vinci Code' claimed as historical evidence. But simply put, there is no evidence. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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171 | Spirtual Musice | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 181956 | ||
Greetings Coltonjunior! If you type in "all I need is you" and Christian lyrics into a Search engine you will find that it is a song by a group called 'Hillsong'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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172 | Spirtual Musice | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 181957 | ||
Correction... The group is called 'Hillsong United'. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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173 | Adam first man or first man in Eden? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 182144 | ||
Greetings Xina! Jeff gave you an excellent response. However, I would add a couple of points. Consider the following Scripture. 1 Cor. 15:45 says, " So it is written: ‘‘The first man Adam became a living being”; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. " Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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174 | But what makes them the same creation? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 182208 | ||
Greetings Tim! It is important to note that both number 120 and 121 are the same word in Hebrew (adam). Strong's mentions this in the definition for 121 but it is sort of confusing. Good post! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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175 | But what makes them the same creation? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 182209 | ||
Greetings Xina! Several people have already responded to your main question concerning chapters one and two. They are correct in pointing out that chapter two simply highlights the creation of man in much more detail. So, it is not correct to say that there are two accounts, but one account repeated in more detail. For instance, notice that Gen. 2:5 says that there was no man to work the ground. Concerning Gen. 1:26 you quoted: ""Also go back and read the account of Creation in Genesis. Pay particular attention to Chapter 1 vs. 26. Notice that God did not say let us create Adam, but instead said, "man". Besides this pointing to the ligical conclusion that if man needed creating, then he (man) did not yet exist; the information in the previous verses clearly do not mention man."" It is important to note that the word for 'Adam' is the word for 'man' used in Gen. 1:26. They are the same word in Hebrew. Have a great day! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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176 | Unitarian Universalism? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 182835 | ||
Greetings Vincent! If you are interested in a cult that believes everything except the Bible, then the Unitarian Church is the place for you! :-( Here is a quote from: http://www.gotquestions.org/ unitarian-universalism.html that gives a quick summary of their beliefs. ************* What is Unitarian Universalism? Question: "What is Unitarian Universalism?" Answer: Unitarian Universalism is a fairly small, yet widely influential, cult. Having under 300,000 registered members, mostly in the United States, they are becoming more and more popular. Relativism, tolerance, and alternative lifestyles are all buzz-words promoted by Unitarian Universalism. The Unitarian Universalist name comes from their denial of the doctrine of the Trinity and their belief that all human beings gain salvation--the mere idea someone might go to hell is not compatible with the character of a loving God. Its roots go all the way back to the sixteenth-century when Unitarian beliefs became popular during the Reformation. Unitarianism thought and Universalism thought were merged together during the late eighteenth-century in America during the Age of Reason. The intellectual elite of that time refused to believe in such biblical teachings as total depravity and eternal damnation, but rather embraced the idea of a single loving God who would never cause someone to suffer. Adherents of Unitarian Universalism base their beliefs primarily upon their own experiences, and are not committed to any one religious system. They believe that each individual has the right to decide for themselves what to believe in, and that others should not infringe upon this right. As a result, one such believer might lean toward liberal Christianity, while another might lean toward New Age spirituality. There is no real dogma beyond tolerance. They reject the Bible as being the Word of God, equating it with barbaric writing that has little to do with modern man; it is a book of myths. As such, they reject the Bible's portrayal of a Triune God, leaving the concept of God up to each individual's imagination. To Unitarian Universalism, Jesus was a good moral teacher, but nothing more. He is not considered to be divine, and every miracle associated with Him is rejected as being outside of human reason. Most sayings of Jesus recorded in the Bible are regarded as embellishments on the part of the authors. Jesus did not die to save mankind from sin, as man is not a fallen sinner. Emphasis is placed on humankind's capacity for goodness. Sin is completely relative, and the term itself is rarely used. Man saves himself through personal improvement, salvation being a purely worldly experience, a "waking up" to the world around oneself. This is very important, for death is final. Most Unitarian Universalists deny the existence of an afterlife, so all we have on earth is all we'll ever get. Unitarian Universalism has nothing in common with biblical Christianity. It is a false gospel; its teachings are contrary to the Bible, and its members strongly oppose traditional, biblical Christian beliefs (while purporting to be free of discrimination or prejudice of any kind). The Bible clearly refutes Unitarian Universalism on all the major points of its teachings. Recommended Resource: The Kingdom of the Cults, revised and updated edition. ************ I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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177 | Unitarian Universalism? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 182843 | ||
Greetings Vince! I really couldn't answer that question. :-) I would be concerned about anyone getting mixed up with them though. By the way, welcome to the forum! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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178 | Translation | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 183045 | ||
Greetings Hank! I agree with the thrust of your comments. The only caution that I urge is that no translation is really literal in the strict sense of the word. Certainly, some are more literal than others, but even the best of translations must at times interpret. I definitely encourage people not to use paraphrases. My own denomination advocates the Message, which I don't think I have ever used (nor do I plan to do so). We certainly don't need the TNIV! :-( Have a great Lord's Day my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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179 | Can the Devil understand us when we pray | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 184687 | ||
Greetings Taby815! There is nothing in Scripture that indicates that the Devil cannot understand a prayer in tongues. Further, there is nothing that indicates that the Devil can block our prayers. Go ahead and pray boldly, there is nothing that Satan can do about it! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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180 | They are married,is it sin to have oral? | Bible general Archive 3 | Morant61 | 185137 | ||
Greetings Yowege! This would probably be a question better discussed with your pastor. Having said that, let me give you a couple of pointers. Oral sex is never once mentioned in Scripture, either to be condemned or condoned. However, as a pastor, I get to deal with questions like this in pre-marital counseling. Here is my basic rule. Anything is allowed within marriage as long as it is: 1) Not condemned by Scripture (like adultery). 2) Mutually consensual. 3) Not physically harmful to either partner. If you want to explore these sort of issues in more detail, I would recommend a book by Tim and Beverly LaHaye called "The Act of Marriage: The Beauty of Sexual Love". You can pick it up or order it at your local Christian bookstore. It only costs about six dollars. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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